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GATE Exam Computer Science Practice Exam

The minimum number of cards to be dealt from an arbitrarily shuffled deck of 52 cards to
guarantee that three cards are from some same suit is
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 12
1.2 The determinant of the matrix
2 0 0 0
8 1 7 2.
2 0 2 0
9 0 6 1
(a) 4
(b) 0
(C) 15
(d) 20
2.17
80.
19. We wish to construct a 5 tree with fan-out (the number of pointers per node) equal to 3
for the following set of key values:
80, 50, 10, 70, 30, 100, 90
Assume that the tree is initially empty and the values are added in the order given.
(a) Show the tree after insertion of 10, after insertion of 30, and after insertion of 90.
Intermediate trees need not be shown.
(b) The key values 30 and 10 are now deleted from the tree in that order. Show the tree after
each deletion.
Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
(a) A device
(b) Timer
(c) Scheduler process
(d) Power failure
2.18 Consider a machine with 64 MB physical memory and a 32-bit virtual address space. If
the page size is 4KB, what is the approximate size of the page table?
(a) 16 MB
(b) 8 MB
(c) 2 MB
(d) 24 MB
2.19 Consider Peterson’s algorithm for mutual exclusion between two concurrent processes i
and j. The program executed by process is shown below.
repeat
flag[i] =true;
turn=j;
while (P) do no—op;
Enter critical section, perform actions, then
exit critical section
Flag[i] =false;
Perform other non—critical section actions. Until false;
For the program to guarantee mutual exclusion, the predicate P in the while loop
should be
(a) flag[j]=true and turn=i
(b) flag[j]=true and turn=j
(c) flag[i]=true and turn=j
(d) flag[i]=true and turn=i
2.20 R(A,B,C,D) is a relation. Which of the following does not have a lossless join, dependency
preserving BCNF decomposition?
(a)A-B,B-CD
(b)A-B,B-C,C-D
(c) AB – C, C – AD
(d) A – BCD
2.21 Which of the following relational calculus expressions is not safe?
(a)
{tu R (t[A1
=
u[A1)A -s
E
R2
(t[A1 =
s[A1)J
(b)
{tfru
E
R1 (u[A1
=
R
(t[A1 =
s[A1
A
s[A1
=
u[A1))}
(c) {t—i(tE
R1)}
(d)
{tuE R1
(t[A1 =
ULA1)ASE R2
(t[A1 =
s[A1)}
2.22 Consider a relation geq which represents “greater than or equal to”, that is, (x,y)E geq
only if y
y is deleted
(b) A tuple (z,w) with z
>
x is deleted
(C) A tuple (z,w) with w < x is deleted (d) The deletion of (x,y) is prohibited SECTION B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Any FIFTEEN out of these questions have to be answered on the Answer Book provided. 1. (a) prove that powerset (A n B) = powerset(A)npowerset(B) (b) Let sum(n)=O+1+2+ +n for all natural numbers n. give an induction proof to show that the following equation is true for all natural numbers m and n: sum(m+n)=sum(m)+sum(n)+mn 2. Consider the function h: NxN - N so that h (a,b) = (2a+1)2’’ —1,where N ={O,1,2,3, } is the set of natural numbers. (a) Prove that the function h is an injection (one-one). (b) Prove that it is also a Subjection (onto) 3. Construct DFA’s for the following languages: (a) L ={wwE {a,b}*, w has baab as a subsring) (b) L ={wwE {a,b}*, w has an odd number of a’s and an odd nuber of b’s) 4. Give a deterministic PDA for the language L = {acb2 fl (- 1) over the alphabet = = {a, b, c}. Specify the acceptance state. 5. Let a decision problem X be defined as follows: X: Given a Turing machine M over and nay word w E does M loop forever on w? You may assume that the halting problem of Turing machine is undecidable but partially decidable. (a) Show that X is undecidable. (b) Show that X is not even partially decidable. 6. Consider a disk with following specifications: 20 surface, 1000 tracks/surface, 16 sectors/track, data density 1 KB/sector, rotation speed 3000 rpm. The operating system initiates the transfer between the disk and the memory sector-wise. Once the head has been placed on the right track, the disk reads a sector in a single scan. It reads bits from the sector while the head is passing over the sector. The read bits are formed into bytes in a serial-in- parallel-out buffer and each byte is then transferred to memory. The disk writing is exactly a complementary process. For parts (c) and (d) below, assume memory read-write time = 0.1 microsecond/byte, interrupt driven transfer has an interrupt overhead = 0.4 microseconds, the DMA initialization and termination overhead is negligible compared to the total sector transfer time. DMA requests are always granted. (a) What is the total capacity of the disk? (b) What is the data transfer rate? (c) What is the percentage of time the CPU is required for this disk I/O for byte- wise interrupts driven transfer? (d) What is the maximum percentage of time the CPU is held up for this disk I/O for cycle- stealing DMA transfer? 7. A CPU has 32-bit memory address and a 256 KB cache memory. The cache is organized as a 4-way set associative cache with cache block size of 16 bytes. (a) What is the number of sets in the cache? (b) What is the size (in bits) of the tag field per cache block? (c) What is the number and size of comparators required for tag matching? (d) How many address bits are required to find the byte offset within a cache block? (e) What is the total amount of extra memory (in bytes) required for the tag bits? 8. (a) Is the 3-variable function f = (0,1,2,4) its self-dual? Justify your answer. (b) Give a minimal product-of-sum form of the b output of the following excess-3 to BCD converter. 9. A sequential circuit takes an input stream of 0’s and l’s and produces an output stream of 0’s and l’s. Initially it replicates the input on its output until two consecutive 0’s are encountered on the input. From then onward, it produces an output stream, which is the bit- wise complement of input stream until it encounters two consecutive l’s, whereupon the process repeats. An example of input and output stream is shown below. The inputstream: 1O11OOO1OO1O11 011 The desired output: 1O11OO1O11O1OO 0 11 J-K master-slave flip-flops are to be used to design the circuit. (a) Give the state transition diagram. (b) Give the minimized sum-of-product expression for J and K inputs of one of its state flip- flops. 10. Consider a 5-stage pipeline — IF (Instruction Fetch), ID (Instruction Decode and register read), EX (Execute), MEM (memory), and WB (Write Back). All (memory or register) reads take place in the second phase of a clock cycle and writes occur in the first phase of the clock cycle. Consider the execution of the following instruction sequence: 11: sub r2, r3, r4; / r2 - r3 — r4 12: sub r4, r2, r3; / r4 - r2 — r3 13: sw r2, 100(n) 1* M[rl+100]E- r2 / 14: sub r3, r4, r2; / r3 - r4 — r2 (a) Show all data dependencies between the four instructions. (b) Identify the data hazards. (c) Can all hazards be avoided by forwarding in this case? 11. Consider the following C program: void abc(char*s) { if(s[O]= =‘O’)return; abc(s+ 1); abc(s+ 1); printf(”°Ioc”,s[O]); } main () { abc(”123”) } (a) What will be the output of the program? (b) If abc(s) is called with a null-terminated string s of length n characters (not counting the null (‘’) character), how many characters will be printed by abc(s)? 11. (a) Insert the following keys one by one into a binary search tree in the order specified. 15, 32, 20, 9, 3, 25, 12, 1 Show the final binary search tree after the insertions. (b) Draw the binary search tree after deleting 15 from it. (c) Complete the statements Si, S2 and S3 in the following function so that the function computes the depth of a binary rooted at t. typedef struct tnode{ mt key; struct tnode *left, *right; } *Tree; mt depth (Tree t) { mt x,y; it (t ==NULL) returnO; x=depth(t-) left); Si: ___________ S2: if(x>y) return _______________
S3: else return _______________
}
12. Consider a weighted undirected graph with vertex set V = {ni,n2,n3,n4,n5,n6} and edge
set
E={(n i,n2,2),(ni,n3,8),(n i,n6,3),(n2,n4,4),(n2,n5,12),(n3,n4,7),(n4,n5,9), (n4,n6,4)}. The
third value in each tuple represents the weight of the edge specified in the tuple.
(a) List the edges of a minimum spanning tree of the graph.
(b) How many distinct minimum spanning trees does this graph have?
(c) Is the minimum among the edge weights of a minimum spanning tree unique overall
possible minimum spanning trees of a graph?
(d) Is the maximum among the edge weights of a minimum spanning tree unique over all
possible minimum spanning trees of a graph?
13. Consider the following grammar with terminal alphabet {a,(,),,*}and start symbol E. The
production rules of the grammar are:
E – aA
E – (E)
A – +E
A *E
A-E
(a) Compute the FIRST and FOLLOW sets for E and A.
(b) Complete the LL(i) parse table for the grammar.
14. The syntax of the repeat-until statement is given by the following grammar S – repeat S1
until E
Where E stands for expressions, S and S1 stand for statement. The non-terminals S and S1
have an attribute code that represents generated code. The non- terminal E has two
attributes. The attribute code represents generated code to evaluate the expression and store
its truth value in a distinct variable, and the attribute varName contains the name of the
variable in which the truth value is stored? The truth-value stored in the variable is 1 if E is
true, 0 if E is false.
Give a syntax-directed definition to generate three-address code for the repeat- until
statement. Assume that you can call a function newlabel( ) that returns a distinct label for a
statement. Use the operator’’ to concatenate two strings and the function gen(s) to generate
a line containing the string s.
15. (a) Remove left-recursion from the following grammar:
S – Sal Sb I a I b
(b) Consider the following grammar:
S – aSbSl bSaS Ic
Construct all possible parse trees for the string abab. Is the grammar ambiguous?
16. Two concurrent processes P1 and P2 want to use two resources Ri and R2 in a
mutually exclusive manner. Initially, Ri and R2 are free. The programs executed
by the two processes are given below.
Program for P1:
51: While (Ri is busy) do no-op;
S2: Set Ri – busy;
S3: While (R2 is busy) do no-op;
S4: Set R2 – busy;
S5: Use Ri and R2;
S6: Set Ri – free;
S7: Set R2 – free;
Program for P2:
Qi: While (Ri is busy) do no-op;
Q2: Set Ri – busy;
Q3: While (Ri is busy) do no-op;
Q4: Set Ri – busy;
Q5: Use Ri and R2;
Q6: Set R2 – free;
Q7: Set Ri – free;
(a) Is mutual exclusion guaranteed for Ri and R2? If not, show a possible interleaving of the
statements of P1 and P2 such that mutual exclusion is violated (i.e., both P1 and P2 use Ri or
R2 at the same time).
(b) Can deadlock occur in the above program? If yes, show a possible interleaving of the
statements of P1 and P2 leading to deadlock.
(c) Exchange the statements Q1 and Q3 and statements Q2 and Q4. Is mutual exclusion
guaranteed now? Can deadlock occur?
17. Consider a disk with the 100 tracks numbered from 0 to 99 rotating at 3000 rpm. The
number of sectors per track is 100. the time to move the head between two successive tracks
is 0.2 millisecond.
(a) Consider a set of disk requests to read data from tracks 32, 7, 45, 5 and 10. Assuming
that the elevator algorithm is used to schedule disk requests, and the head is initially at track
25 moving up (towards larger track numbers), what is the total seek time for servicing the
requests?
(b) Consider an initial set of 100 arbitrary disk requests and assume that no new disk requests
arrive while servicing these requests. If the head is initially at track 0 and the elevator
algorithm is used to schedule disk requests, what is the worst case time to complete all the
requests?
18. Consider the relation examinee (regno, name, score), where regno is the primary key to
score is a real number.
(a) Write a relational algebra using (fJ,G,p,x) to find the list of names which appear more than
once in examinee.
(b) Write an SQL query to list the
regno
of examinees who have a score greater than the
average score.
(c) Suppose the relation
appears (regno, centr_code)
specifies the center where an examinee
appears. Write an SQL query to list the
centr code
having an examinee of score greater than
(a) Suppose you are given an empty B+-tree where each node (leaf and internal) can
store up to 5 key values. Suppose values i,2, iO are inserted, in order, into the tree, Show the
tree pictorially
(i) After 6 insertions, and
(ii) After all iO insertions
Do NOT show intermediate stages.
(b) Suppose instead of splitting a node when it is full, we try to move a value to the left
sibling. If there is no left sibling, or the left sibling is full, we split the node. Show the tree
after values, i, 2, , 9 have been inserted. Assume, as in (a) that each node can hold up to 5
keys.
(c) In general, suppose a B+-tree node can hold a maximum of
m
keys, and you insert a long
sequence of keys in increasing order. Then what approximately is the average number of keys
in each leaf level node.
(i) In the normal case, and
(ii) With the insertion as in (b).
16. Consider a bank database with only one relation
transaction (transno, acctno, date, amount)
The amount attribute value is positive for deposits and negative for withdrawals.
(a) Define an SQL view TP containing the information.
(acctno, Ti.date, T2.amount)
for every pair of transactions Ti, T2 such that Ti and T2 are transaction on the same account
and the date of T2 is the date of Ti.
(b) Using only the above view TP, write a query to find for each account the minimum balance
it ever reached (not including the 0 balance when the account is created). Assume there is at
most one transaction per day on each account, and each account has had atleast one
transaction since it was created. To simply your query, break it up into 2 steps by defining an
intermediate view V.
1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE mark each. For
each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives, A, B, C and D are provided. Choose
the most appropriate alternative and darken its bubble on the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS) against the corresponding sub-question number using a soft HB pencil. Do not darken
more than one bubble for any sub-question. Do not use the ORS for any rough work. You may
use the answer book for any rough work, if needed.
1.1 Consider the following statements:
S1: The sum of two singular n x n matrices may be non-singular
S2: The sum of two n x n non-singular matrices may be singular.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) 51 and S2 are both true
(b) 51 is true, S2 is false
(c) 51 is false, S2 is true
(d) 51 and S2 are both false
1.2 Consider the following relations:
Ri (a,b) iff (a+b) is even over the set of integers
R2 (a,b) iff (a+b) is odd over the set of integers
R3 (a,b) iff a.b > 0 over the set of non-zero rational numbers
R4 (a,b) iff a — bi 2 over the set of natural numbers
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Ri and R2 are equivalence relations, R3 and R4 are not
(b) Ri and R3 are equivalence relations, R2 and R4 are not
(c) Ri and R4 are equivalence relations, R2 and R3 are not
(d) Ri, R2, R3 and R4 are all equivalence relations
1.3 Consider two well-formed formulas in prepositional logic
El: P —iP E2: (Pi—iP)v(–iPiP)
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Fl is satisfiable, F2 is valid
(b) Fl unsatisfiable, F2 is satisfiable
(c) Fl is unsatisfiable, F2 is valid
(d) Fl and F2 are both satisfiable
1.4 consider the following two statements:
S1: {o2’Hn (- i)isa regular language
S2:
{ominom÷n rn
1 and
n
i} is a regular language
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only Si is correct
(b) Only S2 is correct
(c) Both Si and S2 are correct
(d) None of Si and S2 is correct
1.5 Which of the following statements s true?
(a) If a language is context free it can always be accepted by a deterministic push-down
automaton
(b) The union of two context free languages is context free
(c) The intersection of two context free languages is context free
(d) The complement of a context free language is context free
1.6 Given an arbitary non-deterministic finite automaton (NFA) with N states, the maximum
number of states in an equivalent minimized DFA is at least
(a) N2
(b) 2N
(c) 2N
(d) N!
1.7 More than one word are put in one cache block to
(a) exploit the temporal locality of reference in a program
(b) exploit the spatial locality of reference in a program
(c) reduce the miss penalty
(d) none of the above
1.8 Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Virtual memory implements the translation of a program’s address space into physical
memory address space
(b) Virtual memory allows each program to exceed the size of the primary memory
(c) Virtual memory increases the degree of multiprogramming
(d) Virtual memory reduces the context switching overhead
1.9 A low memory can be connected to 8085 by using
(a) INTER
(b) RESET IN
(c) HOLD
(d) READY
1.10 Suppose a processor does not have any stack pointer register. Which of the following
statements is true?
(a) It cannot have subroutine call instruction
(b) It can have subroutine call instruction, but no nested subroutine calls
(c) Nested subroutine calls are possible, but interrupts are not
(d) All sequences of subroutine calls and also interrupts are possible
1.11 Given the following Karnaugh map, which one of the following represents the minimal
Sum-Of-Products of the map?
(a)
xy+y’z
(b)
wx’y’+xy+xz
(c)
w’x+y’z+xy
(d)xz+y
1.12 A processor needs software interrupt to
(a) test the interrupt system of the processor
(b) implement co-routines
(c) obtain system services which need execution of privileged instructions
(d) return from subroutine
1.13 A CPU has two modes-privileged and non-privileged. In order to change the mode from
privileged to non-privileged
(a) a hardware interrupt is needed
(b) a software interrupt is needed
(c) a privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt) is needed
(d) a non-privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt is needed
1.14 Randomized quicksort is an extension of quicksort where the pivot is chosen randomly.
What is the worst case complexity of sorting n numbers using randomized quicksort?
(a) 0(n)
(b) 0(n log n)
(c) 0(n2)
(d) 0(n!)
1.15 Consider any array representation of an n element binary heap where the elements are
stored from index 1 to index n of the array. For the element stored at index i of the array (I (-
n), the index of the parent is
(1+1)
(a) i-i
(b) L]
(c) r.i
(d) 2
Nwx
00 01 11 10
YZ
00 0 X 0 X
01 X 1 X 1
11 0 X 1 0
10 0 1 X 0
1.16 Let
f(n)
=
n2
logn and
g(n)
=
n(logn)1°
be two positive functions of n. Which of
the following statements is correct?
(a) f(n) = O(g(n) and g(n) O(f(n))
(b) g(n) = O(f(n) and f(n) O(g(n))
(c) f(n)=O(g(n)) and g(n) O(f(n))
(d) f(n)=O(g(n)) and g(n) =O(f(n))
1.17 The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and
adjusting the code and date in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is
called
(a) Assembly
(b) Parsing
(c) Relocation
(d) Symbol resolution
1.18 Which of the following statements is false?
(a) An unambiguous grammar has same leftmost and rightmost derivation
(b) An LL(1) parser is a top-down parser
(c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
(d) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k
1.19 Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2, …. r to be run on a uniprocessor
machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms will result in the maximum
throughput?
(a) Round-Robin
(b) Shortest-Job-First
(c) Highest-Response-Ratio-Next
(d) First-Come-First-Served
1.20 Where does the swap space reside?
(a) RAM
(b) Disk
(c) ROM
(d) On-chip cache
1.21 Consider a virtual memory system with FIFO page replacement policy. For an arbitrary
page access pattern, increasing the number of page frames in main memory will
(a) always decrease the number of page faults
(b) always increase the number of page faults
(c) sometimes increase the number of page faults
(d) never affect the number of page faults
1.22 Which of the following requires a device driver?
(a) Register
(b) Cache
(c) Main memory
(d) Disk
1.23 Consider a schema R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies A – B and C – D. Then the
decomposition of R into R1 (AB) and R2(CD) is
(a) dependency preserving and lossless join
(b) lossless join but not dependency preserving
(c) dependency preserving but not lossless join
(d) not dependency preserving and not lossless join
1.24 Suppose the adjacency relation of vertices in a graph is represented in a table
Adj (X,Y). Which of the following queries cannot be expressed by a relational
algebra expression of constant length?
(a) List of all vertices adjacent to a given vertex
(b) List all vertices which have self loops
(c) List all vertices which belong to cycles of less than three vertices
(d) List all vertices reachable from a given vertex
1.25 Let r and s be two relations over the relation schemes R and S respectively, and
let A be an attribute in R. then the relational algebra expression
0Aa
(rXJ
5)
is
always equal to
(a)
oA_a(r)
(b) r
(c)
0Aa
(r)N s
(d) None of the above
2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For
each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives, A,B, C and D are provided. Choose the
most appropriate alternative and darken its bubble on the Objective Response Sheet (ORS)
against the corresponding sub-question number using a soft HB pencil. Do not darken more
than one bubble for any sub-question. Do not use the CR5 for any rough work. You may use
the answer book for any rough work, if needed.
2.1 How many 4-digit even numbers have all 4 digits distinct?
(a) 2240
(b) 2296
(c) 2620
(d) 4536
2.2 Consider the following statements:
S1: There exists infinite sets A, B, C such that An(BuC) is finite.
S2: There exists two irrational numbers x and y such that (x+y) is rational.
Which of the following is true about 51 and S2?
(a) Only 51 is correct
(b) Only S2 is correct
(c) Both 51 and S2 are correct
(d) None of 51 and S2 is correct
2.3 Let
f:
A – B be a function, and let E and F be subsets of A. Consider the following
statements about images.
Si:f(EuF)=f(E) uf(F)
S2:f(EnF)=f(E) nf(F)
Which of the following is true about Si and S2?
(a) Only Si is correct
(b) Only S2 is correct
(c) Both Si and S2 are correct
(d) None of Si and S2 is correct
2.4 Consider a DFA over ={a,b}accepting all strings which have number of a’s divisible by 6
and number of b’s divisible by 8. What is the minimum number of states that the DFA will
have?
(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 48
2.5 Consider the following languages:
Li ={wwwE {a,b}*}
L2 =
{wwR w {a, b}*, wR
is the reverse of w}
L3
=
{021
i is an integer)
= {o2 i is an integer)
Which of the languages are regular?
(a) Only Li and L2
(b) Only L2, L3 and L4
(c) Only L3 and L4
(d) Only L3
2.6 Consider the following problem X.
Given a Turing machine M over the input alphabet , any state q of M
And a word w
E*,
does the computation of M on w visit the state q?
Which of the following statements about X is correct?
(a) X is decidable
(b) X is undecidable but partially decidable
(c) X is undecidable and not even partially decidable
(d) X is not a decision problem
2.7 Which is the most appropriate match for the items in the first column with the items in the
second column
X. Indirect Addressing I. Array implementation
Y. Indexed Addressing II. Writing re-locatable code
Z. Base Register Addressing III. Passing array as parameter
(a) (X, III) (Y, I) (Z, II)
(b) (X, II) (Y, III) (Z, I)
(c) (X, III) (Y, II) (Z, I)
(d) (X, I) (Y, III) (Z, II)
2.8 The 2’s complement representation of is hexadecimal is
(a) ABE (b) DBC (c) DE5 (d) 9E7
2.9 Consider the circuit given below1th initial state Qo =1, Q = Q2 = 0. The state of the circuit
is given by the value 4Q2 + 2Q1 + Q0 –
Clock
Which one of the following is the correct state sequence of the circuit?
(a) 1,3,4,6,7,5,2
(b) 1,2,5,3,7,6,4
(c) 1,2,7,3,5,6,4
(d) 1,6,5,7,2,3,4
2.10 Consider the following data path of a simple non-pilelined CPU. The registers A, B, A1,
A2, MDR, the bus and the ALU are 8-bit wide. SP and MAR are 16-bit registers. The MUX is of
size 8 x (2:1) and the DEMUX is of size 8 x (1:2). Each memory operation takes 2 CPU clock
cycles and uses MAR (Memory Address Register) and MDR (Memory Date Register). SP can be
decremented locally.
How many CPU clock cycles are needed to execute the “push r” instruction?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
2.11 Consider an undirected unweighted graph G. Let a breadth-first traversal of G be done
starting from a node r. Let d(r,u) and d(r,v) be the lengths of the shortest paths from r to u
and v respectively in G. If u is visited before v during the breadth-first traversal, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) d(r,u)d(r,v)
(c) d(r,u) 4 and x < 6, where x is an integer (c) x<5 not (x=5) (d) None of the above SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY FIFTEEN questions. If more number of questions are attempted, score off the answer not to be evaluated, else only the first fifteen unscored answers will be considered. 1. A multiset is an unordered collection of elements where elements may repeat any number of times. The size of a multiset is the number of elements in it counting repetitions. (a) What is the number of multisets of size 4 that can be constructed from n distinct elements so that at least one element occurs exactly twice? (b) How many multisets can be consctructed from n distinct elements? 2. Let S be a set of n elements {1, 2, ...., n} and G a graph with 2 vertices, each vertex corresponding to a distinct subset of S. Two vertices are adjacent if the symmetric difference of the corresponding sets has exactly 2 elements. Note: The symmetric difference of two sets R1 and R2 is defined as u R2J R1 (a) Every vertex in G has the same degree. What is the degree of a vertex in G? (b) How many connected components does G have? 3. (a) Construct as minimal finite state machine that accepts the language, over {0,1}, of all strings that contain neither the substring 00 nor the substring 11. (b) Consider the grammar aSAb A- bA A- C Where 5, A are non-terminal symbols with S being the start symbol; a,b are terminal symbols and c is the empty string. This grammar generates strings of the form a’bfor some i, j 0, where i and j satisfy some condition. What is the condition on the values of i and j? 4. A pushdown automaton (pda) is given in the following extended notation of finite state diagrams: _______ 2.s/s 1.s/1.s 1,1.s/s The nodes denote the states while the edges denote the moves of the pda. The edge labels are of the form d, s/s’where d is the input symbol read and s,s’are the stack contents before and after the move. For example the edge labeled 1, s/1.s denotes the move from state q0 to q0in which the input symbol 1 is read and pushed to the stack. (a) Introduce two edges with appropriate labels in the above diagram so that the resulting pda accepts the language {x2xR x E {0, 1} *, xR denotes revese of x}, by empty stack. (b) Describe a non-deterministic pda with three states in the above notation that accept the language {o1m fl < m < 2n) by empty stack 4. Design a logic circuit to convert a single digit BCD number to the number modulo six as follows (Do not detect illegal input): (a) Write the truth table for all bits. Label the input bits I, 1, .... With I as the least significant bit. Label the output bits R1, R2, .... With R1 as the least significant bit. Use 1 to signify truth. (b) Draw one circuit for each output bit using, altogether, two two-input AND gates, one two- input gate and two NOT gates. 5. Consider the 8085 instruction IN 09H stored as follows: And the following incomplete timing diagram for the instruction: T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6 T7 T8 T9 TA A15-A8 AD7 C>
IO/M
(a) Write the contents of the boxes, A, B, C and D in hexadecimal in your answer sheet. Do
not draw any pictures.
(b) Write the state of both ALE and
RD
pins at time units Ti, T2, T3 and T4.
(c) How do you generate the signal that tells the peripheral to put the data on the bus?
Answer by completing the following statement in your answer book:
By combining signals
ii. Consider the following 8085 program segment, where registers B and C contain BCD
values:
Si: MVI A, 99H
MVI D, OOH
SUB C
ADD B
DAA
S2: JC S3
Memory Address Machine Code
3050 DA
3051 09
MOV E, A
MVI A, 99H
SUB E
MOV E, A
JZ S4
MVI D, FFH
JMP S4
S3: INC A
DAA
MOV E, A
S4
(a) For the two pairs (B = 44, C = 25) and (B = 33, C = 46) at Si,
(i) Find the values in register A when control reaches S2.
(ii) Find the values in registers D and E when control reaches S4.
(b) What, in general, is the value of D and E as a function of B and C when control reaches S4.
6. An instruction pipeline has five stages where each stage takes 2 nanoseconds and all
instructions use all five stages. Branch instructions are not overlapped, i.e., the instruction
after the branch is not fetched till the branch instruction is completed. Under ideal conditions.
(a) Calculate the average instruction execution time assuming that 2O% of all instruction
executed are branch instructions. Ignore the fact that some branch instructions may be
conditional.
(b) If a branch instruction is a conditional branch instruction, the branch need not be taken. If
the branch is not taken, the following instructions can be overlapped. When 8O/c of all branch
instructions are conditional branch instructions, and 5Q% of the conditional branch
instructions are such that the branch is taken, calculate the average instruction execution
time.
7. Suppose a stack implementation supports, in addition to PUSH and POP, an operation
REVERSE, which reverses the order of the elements on the stack.
(a) To implement a queue using the above stack implementation, show how to implement
ENQUEUE using a single operation and DEQUEUE using a sequence of 3 operations.
(b) The following postfix expression, containing single digit operands and arithmetic operators
+ and *, is evaluated using a stack.
52*34+52**+
Show the contents of the stack.
(i) After evaluating 5 2 * 3 4 +
(ii) After evaluating 5 2 * 3 4 + 5 2
(iii) At the end of evaluation.
8. Consider the line y = -2-x, where n and m are positive integers.
(a) If mq — np < 0, then is the point (p,q) above the line, below the line, or on the line? (b) Complete the following function, that returns true if the line segment with endpoints (p,q) and (r,s) intersects the line y = -2-x, by writing the line number and the content of each box in your answer book. 1: function clash (m, n, p. q, r, 5: integer): Boolean; 2: begin 3: clash = false; 4: if(m*q_n*p) lOthenclash : =true; 5: If(m*s — n * r) I IC then clash : = true; 6: if(m*q_n*p) IOand(m*s_n*r)I IOthenclash:=true; 7: if(m*q_n*p) Ioand(m*s_n*r)I Iothenclash:=true; 8: end; 9. Suppose you are given arrays p[1 N] and q[1 N] both uninitialized that is, each location may contain an arbitrary value), and a variable count, initialized to 0. Consider the following procedures set and iset: set (i) { count = count + 1; q [count] = i; p[i] = count; } is_set(i) { if (p[i] != 0 or p[i] > count)
return false;
if (q[p[i]] i)
return false;
return true;
}
(a) Suppose we make the following sequence of calls:
set (7); set (3); set(9);
After these quence of calls, what is the value of count, and what do q[1], q[2], q[3], p[7],
p[3] and p[9] contain?
(b) Complete the following statement “The first count elements of ________ contain values i
such that set ( ____________) has been called”.
(c) Show that if set (i) has not been called for some i, then regardless of what p[i] contains,
is_set (i) will return false.
10. A recursive program to compute Fibonacci numbers is shown below. Assume you are also
given an array f[O m] with all elements initialized to 0.
fib(n) {
if (n > M) error 0;
if ( n==0) return 1;
if(n ==1) return 1;
if(I I) (1)
return I I (2)
t = fib(n — 1) + fib (n — 2);
I I (3)
return t;
}
(a) Fill in the boxes with expressions/statements to make fibQ store and reuse computed
Fibonacci values. Write the box number and the corresponding contents in your answer book.
(b) What is the time complexity of the resulting program when computing fib(n)?
11. An array contains four occurrences of 0, five occurrences of 1, and three occurre3nces of 2
in any order. The array is to be sorted using swap operations (elements that are swapped
need to be adjacent).
(a) What is the minimum number of swaps needed to sort such an array in the worst case?
(b) Give an ordering of elements in the above array so that the minimum number of swaps
needed to sort the array is maximum.
12. Consider the following program is pseudo-Pascal syntax.
program main;
varx: integer;
procedure Q [z:integer);
begin
z: z + x;
writel n (z)
end;
procedure P (y:integer);
varx: integer;
begin
x: y + 2;
writeln(x)
end;
begin
x:=5;
P(x);
writeln(x)
end.
What is the output of the program, when
(a) The parameter passing mechanism is call-by-value and the scope rule is static scooping?
(b) The parameter passing mechanism is call-by-reference and the scope rule is dynamic
scooping?
13. Consider the syntax directed translation scheme (SDTS) given in the following. Assume
attribute evaluation with bottom-up parsing, i.e., attributes are evaluated immediately after a
reduction.
E – E1 * T {E.val = E1. val * T. val}
E-T{E.val =T.val}
T – F – T1 {T.val = F. val – T1. val}
T-F{T.val=F.val}
F – 2 {F. val =2}
F – 4 {F. val =4}
(a) Using this SDTS, construct a parse tree for the expression
4_2_4*2
and also compute its E.val.
(b) It is required to compute the total number of reductions performed to parse a given input.
Using synthesized attributes only, modify the SDTS given, without changing the grammar, to
find E.red, the number of reductions performed while reducing an input to E.
14. (a) Fill in the boxes below to get a solution for the readers-writers problem, using a single
binary semphore, mutex (initialized to 1) and busy waiting. Write the box numbers (1,2 and
3), and their contents in your answer book.
mt R = 0, W = 0;
Reader ( ) {
Li: wait (mutex);
If (W ==0) {
R = R +1;
I I (1)
}
else {
I I (2)
goto Li;
}
./* do the read */
wait (mutex)
R = R –
signal (mutex);
}
Writer () {
L2: wait(mutex);
If(I I) { (3)
signal (mutex);
goto L2;
}
W=i;
signal (mutex);
/*do the write*/
wa it( m utex)
W = 0;
signal (mutex);
(b) Can the above solution lead to starvation of writers?
E1 and E2 are events in a probability space satisfying the following constraints:
• Pr(E1) = Pr(E2)
• Pr(E1uE2)=1
• E1 and E2 are independent
The value of Pr(E1), the probability of the event E1, is
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
2.3. Let S=ilog21 and
100
andT=f
xlog2xdx
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) S>T
(b) S=T
(c) S T
(d) 2S < T 2.4. A polynomial p(x) satisfies the following: p(1) = p(3) = p(5) = 1 p(2) = p(4) = -1 The minimum degree of such a polynomial is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2.5. A relation R is defined on the set of integers as x Ry iff (x+y) is even. Which of the following statements is true? (a) R is not an equivalence relation (b) R is an equivalence relation having 1 equivalence class (c) R is an equivalence relation having 2 equivalence classes (d) R is an equivalence relation having 3 equivalence classes 2.6. Let P(S) denotes the powerset of set S. Which of the following is always true? (a) P(P(S))=P(S) (b) P(S) nP(P(S)) = {Ø} (c) P(S) nS = P(S) (d) S P(S) 2.7. Let a, b, c, d be propositions. Assume that the equivalence a -* (b V-b) and b -* c hold. Then the truth-value of the formula (a A b) — (a A c) v d is always (a) True (b) False (c) Same as the truth-value of b (d) Same as the truth-value of d 2.8. What can be said about a regular language L over {a} whose minimal finite state automation has two states? (a) L must be {aIn is odd} (b) L must be {aIn is even} (c) L must be {aI0} (d) Either L must be {aIn is odd}, or L must be {aI n is even} 2.9. Consider the following decision problems: (P1) Does a given finite state machine accept a given string (P2) Does a given context free grammar generate an infinite number of stings Which of the following statements is true? (a) Both (P1) and (P2) are decidable (b) Neither (P1) nor (P2) are decidable (c) Only (P1) is decidable (d) Only (P2) is decidable 2.10. The simultaneous equations on the Boolean variables x, y, z and w, x+y+z= 1 xy = 0 xz + w = 1 xy+ W=0 have the following solution for x, y, z and w, respectively: (a) 0100 (b) 1101 (c) 1011 (d)1000 2.11. Which functions does NOT implement the Karnaugh map given below? 0 x 0 0 0 x 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 x 0 0 (a) (w+x)y (c) (w+x)(W+y)(+y) (b) xy+yw (d) None of the above 2.12. The following arrangement of master-slave flip flops has the initial state of P. Q as 0, 1 (respectively). After the clock cycles the output state P. Q is (respectively), (a) 1, 0 (b) 1, 1 (c) 0, 0 (d) 0, 1 2.13. A graphics card has on board memory of 1 MB. Which of the following modes can the card not support? (a) 1600 x 400 resolution with 256 colours on a 17 inch monitor (b) 1600 x 400 resolution with 16 million colours on a 14 inch monitor (c) 800 x 400 resolution with 16 million colours on a 17 inch monitor (d) 800 x 800 resolution with 256 colours on a 14 inch monitor 2.14. Consider the values of A = 2.0 x i03° B = -2.0 x i03°, C = 1.0, and the sequence X: = A + B X: = X + C Y:= A + c Y:= Y + B Executed on a computer where floating point numbers are represented with 32 bits. The values for X and Y will be (a) X = 1.0, Y = 1.0 (c) X = 0.0, Y = 1.0 (b) X = 1.0, Y = 0.0 (d) X = 0.0, Y = 0.0 2.15. Suppose you are given an array s[1...n] and a procedure reverse (s,i,j) which reverses the order of elements in a between positions i and j (both inclusive). What does the following sequence do, where 1 < k < n: reverse (5, 1, k); reverse (5, k + 1, n); reverse (5, 1, n); (a) Rotates s left by k positions (b) Leaves s unchanged (c) Reverses all elements of s (d) None of the above 2.16. Let LASTPOST, LASTIN and LASTPRE denote the last vertex visited in a postorder, inorder and preorder traversal. Respectively, of a complete binary tree. Which of the following is always tree? (a) LASTIN = LASTPOST (b) LASTIN = LASTPRE (c) LASTPRE = LASTPOST (d) None of the above 2.17. Consider the following functions f(n) = 3n g (n) = 2JIog2 h(n) = n! Which of the following is true? (a) h(n) is 0 (f(n)) (b) h(n) is 0 (g(n)) (c) g(n) is not 0 (f(n)) (d) f(n) is 0(g(n)) 2.18. Let G be an undirected connected graph with distinct edge weight. Let emaxbe the edge with maximum weight and emjn the edge with minimum weight. Which of the following statements is false? (a) Every minimum spanning tree of G must contain emjn (b) If emax is in a minimum spanning tree, then its removal must disconnect G (c) No minimum spanning tree contains emax (d) G has a unique minimum spanning tree 2.19. Lt G be an undirected graph. Consider a depth-first traversal of G, and let T be the resulting depth-first search tree. Let u be a vertex in G and let v be the first new (unvisited) vertex visited after visiting u in the traversal. Which of the following statements is always true? (a) {u,v} must be an edge in G, and u is a descendant of v in T (b) {u,v} must be an edge in G, and v is a descendant of u in T (c) If {u,v} is not an edge in G then u is a leaf in T (d) If {u,v} is not an edge in G then u and v must have the same parent in T 2.20. The value of j at the end of the execution of the following C program mt incr (mt i) static mt count = 0; count = count + i; return (count); main () mt i,j; for (i = 0; i <=4; i++) j = incr(i); is (a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 2.21. Given the following expression grammar: EE*FIF+EIF F - F - I id which of the following is true? (a) * has higher precedence than + (b) - has higher precedence than * (c) + and — have same precedence (d) + has higher precedence than * 2.22. Suppose the time to service a page fault is on the average 10 milliseconds, while a memory access takes 1 microsecond. Then a 99.99% hit ratio results in average memory access time of (a) 1.9999 milliseconds (b) 1 millisecond (c) 9.999 microseconds (d) 1.9999 microseconds 2.23. Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock prevention scheme? (a) Release all resources before requesting a new resource (b) Number the resources uniquely and never request a lower numbered resource than the last one requested. (c) Never request a resource after releasing any resource (d) Request and all required resources be allocated before execution. 2.24. Given the following relation instance xYz 142 153 163 322 Which of the following functional dependencies are satisfied by the instance? (a) XY-)ZandZ-Y (b) YZ-XandY-Z (c) YZ-XandX-)Z (d) XZ-YandY-X 2.25. Given relations r(w,x) and s(y,z), the result of select distinct w,x from r, s is guaranteed to be same as r, provided (a) r has no duplicates and s is non-empty (b) r and s have no duplicates (c) s has no duplicates and r is non-empty (d) r and s have the same number of tuples The number 43 in 2’s complement representation is (a) 01010101 (b) 11010101 (c) 00101011 (d) 10101011 1.6 To put the 8085 microprocessor in the wait state (a) lower the HOLD input (b) lower the READY input (c) raise the HOLD input (d) raise the READY input 1.7 Comparing the time Ti taken for a single instruction on a pipelined CPU with time T2 taken on a non-pipelined but identical CPU, we can say that (a) Ti = T2 (b) Ti > T2
(c) Ti value=5; 2: using uninitialized pointers
Z: char *p; *p’a’; 3. lost memory is:
(a) X—1 Y—3 Z-2
(b) X—2 Y—1 Z-3
(C) X—3 Y—2 Z-1
(d) X—3 Y—1 Z-2
1.12 The most appropriate matching for the following pairs
X: depth first search 1: heap
Y: breadth-first search 2: queue
Z: sorting 3: stack
is:
(a) X—1 Y—2 Z-3
(b) X—3 Y—1 Z-2
(c) X—3 Y—2 Z-1
(d) X—2 Y—3 Z-1
1.13 Consider the following nested representation of binary trees: (X Y Z) indicates Y and Z
are the left and right sub stress, respectively, of node X. Note that Y and Z
may be NULL, or further nested. Which of the following represents a valid binary
tree?
(a) (1 2 (4 5 6 7))
(b) (1 (2 3 4) 5 6) 7)
(c) (1 (2 3 4)(5 6 7))
(d) (1 (2 3 NULL) (4 5))
1.14 Let s be a sorted array of n integers. Let t(n) denote the time taken for the most efficient
algorithm to determined if there are two elements with sum less than 1000 in s. which of the
following statements is true?
(a) t (n) is 0(1)
(b) n t(n) n log2 n
(c) n log2 n t(n)
(d) t(n) =
1.15 Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to
(a) multiple variables having the same memory location
(b) multiple variables having the same value
(c) multiple variables having the same identifier
(d) multiple uses of the same variable
1.16 Assume that objects of the type short, float and long occupy 2 bytes, 4 bytes and 8
bytes, respectively. The memory requirement for variable t, ignoring alignment
considerations, is
(a) 22 bytes
(b) 14 bytes
(c) 18 bytes
(d) 10 bytes
1.17 The number of tokens in the following C statement
printf(”i=%d, &%i”,i,&i);
is
(a) 3
(b) 26
(c) 10
(d) 21
1.18. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input
string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order.
(a) Leftmost derivation
(b) Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse
(c) Rightmost derivation
(d) Rightmost derivation traced out in reverse
1.19. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch
between processes?
(a) General purpose registers
(b) Translation look-aside buffer
(c) Program counter
(d) All of the above
1.20. Let m[0]…m[4] be mutexes (binary semaphores) and P[0] …. P[4] be processes.
Suppose each process P[i] executes the following:
wait (m[i];wait (m[(i+1) mode 4]);
release (m[i]); release (m[(i+1)mod 4]);
This could cause
(a) Thrashing
(b) Deadlock
(c) Starvation, but not deadlock
(d) None of the above
1.21. B -trees are preferred to binary trees in databases because
(a) Disk capacities are greater than memory capacities
(b) Disk access is much slower than memory access
(c) Disk data transfer rates are much less than memory data transfer rates
(d) Disks are more reliable than memory

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GATE Exam Pharmaceutical Practice Exam

5. The starting material for the synthesis of ALPRAZOLAM is
(A) 3-amino-5-bromoacetophenone
(B) 2-amino-5-chlorobenzophenone
(C) 2-amino-5-bromoacetophenone
(D) 3-amino-5-chlorobenzophenone
6. Simplification of Morphinan system gave one BENZOMORPHAN derivative
(A) Pentazocin
(B) Pethidine
(C) Levorphanol
(D) Buprenorphine
7. A metabolite of SPIRONOLACTONE is
(A) Aldosterone
(B) Canrenone
(C) Corticosterone
(D)Pregnenolone
8. The IUPAC name for NAPROXEN is
(A) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napththyl)-acetic acid
(B) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napththyl)-acetic acid
(C) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napththyl)-propionic acid
(D) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napththyl)-propionic acid
9. The metabolic function of Riboflavin involves the following
(A) FMN and FAD
(B) NADP and NADPH
(C) AMP and ATP
(D) Retine and Retinine
10. X-ray spectral lines
Ka
doublet arises from transition of electrons from
(A) M shell to K shell
(B) L shell to K shell
(C) L shell to M shell
(D) M shell to L shell
11. The method of expressing magnetic field strength is
(A) cycles/sec
(B) pulses/sec
(C) debye units
(D)gauss
12. A solvent used in NMR studies is
(A) chloroform
(B) acetone
(C) carbontetrachloride
(D) methanol
13. A widely accepted detector electrode for pH measurement is
(A) platinum wire
(B) glass electrode
(C) Ag-AgCI electrode
(D) lanthanum fluoride
14. Commercial production of citric acid is carried out by the microbial culture of
(A) Fusarium moniliformi
(B) Rhizopus nigricans
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Candida utilis
15. For thermophilic microorganisms, the minimum growth temperature required is
(A) 20°C
(B) 37°C
(C) 45°C
(D)65°C
16. Obligatory anaerobes
(A) can tolerate oxygen and grow better in its presence
(B) do not tolerate oxygen and die in its presence
(C) can grow in oxygen levels below normal
(D) can grow in presence of atmospheric oxygen
17. Plasmid is a
(A) macromolecule involved in the protein synthesis
(B) circular piece of duplex DNA
(C) a hybrid DNA that is formed by joining pieces DNA
(D) endogenous substance secreted by one type of cell
18. Lactose intolerance is because of the lack of
(A) acid phosphatase
(B) lactate dehydrogenase
(C) galactose-1-phosphate-uridyl transferase
(D) amylase
19. Synthesis of UREA takes place exclusively in
(A) kidney
(B) liver
(C) gall bladder
(D) urinary bladder
20. A term which describes a cofactor that is finally bound to an apoenzyme is
(A) holoenzyme
(B) prosthetic group
(C) coenzyme
(D) transferase
21. How many parts of 1O% ointment be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get
12% ointment?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D)6
22. The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the
preparation of mucoadhesives is,
(A) oleic acid
‘.‘7
(B) tween-80
(C) glycerol
(D) propylene glycol
23. One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India is
(A) Director General of Health Services
(B) Government Analyst
(C) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council
(D) Director General of Indian Veterinary Research Institute
24. The Schedule in Drugs and Cosmetics Act that deals with the requirements and guidelines
for clinical trials, import and manufacture of new drugs is
(A) Schedule ‘0’
(B) Schedule ‘M’
(C) Schedule ‘F’
(D)Schedule ‘Y’
25. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix
tablets is
(A) H.P.M.C
(B) C.A.P
(C) Polyethylene
(D) Carnauba Wax
26. A drug which causes pink to brownish skin pigmentation within a few weeks of the
initiation of therapy is
(A) itraconazole
(B) clofazimine
(C) lomefloxacin
(D) neomycin
27. The risk of Digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of
(A) triamterene
(B) lidocaine
(C) captopril
(D) hydrochlorthiazide
28. An agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases
coronary blood supply is
(A) nitroglycerine
(B) nifedipine
(C) timolol
(D) isosorbide mononitrate
29. An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritie
and peptic ulcer is
(A) Campylobacterjejuni
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Helicobacter Pylon
(D) Giardia lamblia
30. A 5HTID receptor agonist useful in migraine is
(A) sumatriptan
(B) ketanserin
(C) ergotamine
(D)methysergide
Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each.
31. At present, different species of Papaver such as P. bracteatum and P. orientale are being
cultivated instead of P.somniferum because they contain
(A) more of morphine
(B) less of morphine
(C) only codeine
(D) only thebaine
32. Guggulipid, a resin is
(A) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing multifunctional compound
(±) gossypol
(B) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for the treatment of
dermatoses
(C) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since ancient time
(D) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a mixture of sterols
including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione
33. In nitrofurantoin synthesis, 5-nitrofurfuraldehyde diacetate is treated with one of the
following intermediate in presence of CH3COOH+H2S04+C2H5OH
(A) hydantoin
(B) 1-5-diamino hydantoin
(C) 1-3-diamino hydantoin
(D) 1-amino-hydantoin
34. 4-hydroxy-3-hydroxymethyl benzaldehyde is treated with acetic anhydride and then kept
with ether solvent, t-butyl cyanide and acetic acid for ten days. Resulting compound is
reduced with LiAIH4 in tetrahydrofuran. The final product is
(A) isoprenaline
(B) dobutamine
(C) salbutamol
(D)oriciprenaline
35. 2-iminothiazolidine is treated with phenyloxirane to get a drug used in roundworm
infection is
(A) piperazine
(B) tetramisole
(C) thiabendazole
(D)levamisole
36. Thiamine hydrochloride on treatment with alkaline potassium ferricyanide gives
(A) thymochrome with fluorescence
(B) oxythiamine with golden yellow colour
(C) neopyrithiamine with orange yellow colour
(D) tiochrome with blue fluorescence
37. A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form a
multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid
layers is
(A) prodrugs
(B) liposomes
(C) osmotic pumps
(D) nanoparticles
38. Unless otherwise stated in the individual monograph of the pharmacopoeia, in the
disintegration test for enteric coated tablets, first the dissolution is carried out in
(A) 0.1 M HCI
(B) phosphate buffer
(C) water
(D) 0.1 MH2SO4
39. What is the proportion of NaCI required to render a 1.S% solution of drug isotonic with
blood plasma? The freezing point of 1% w/v solution of drug is -0.122°C and that of NaCI is
-0.576°C
(A) 0.65%
(B) 0.585%
(C) 0.9%
(D)0.5%
40. JR Spectra appear as dips in the curve rather than maxima as in UV-Visible spectra
because it is a plot of
(A) % Absorbance against Wave number.
(B) % Transmittance against Concentration
(C) % Absorbance against Concentration
(D) Transmittance against Wave number.
41. ESR is applied to only those substances showing paramagnetism which is due to
the magnetic moment of
(A) neutrons
(B) protons
(C) paired electrons
(D) unpaired electrons
81. What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?
(A) 0.455 moles/litre
(B) 0.25 moles/litre
(C) 0.0455 moles/litre
(D) 0.10 moles/litre
82. What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?
(A) 0.026 moles/litre
(B) 0.0026 moles/litre
(C) 0.03 moles/litre
(D) 0.053 moles/litre
Data for questions 83 to 85:
In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage from
containing olive oil, vitamin A and water.
This section consists of TWENTY questions (EC3-EC22) of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY
FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each
question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts
of a question must appear together).
3. Write your inferences in one or two words only
(a) Two different samples of aloes are dissolved separately in water. 2 ml of the above
solutions are treated separately with 2 ml Bromine water
(i) A pale yellow precipitate with violet supernatant liquid is seen
(ii) A pale yellow precipitate with no violet supernatant liquid is seen
(b) A crude drug sample consisting of dried leaflets gave a positive Borntrager’s test
(c) When an air-dried latex is dissolved in water and treated with ferric chloride solution — a
red colour develops.
10. List the five important components in mass spectrometer.
11. In the assay of PYRIDOXINE HYDROCHLORIDE I.P.
(a) Name the solvent used for dissolution of sample
(b) Name the inorganic reagent which is added subsequently
(c) What is the reason for its addition?
(d) Name the tirant used.
(e) Give the structure of the final product.
1.22. The R-W coefficient test is used to evaluate
(a) Antibiotic activity
(b) Sterility of packaging material
(c) Nature of organism in bacterial infection
(d) Bactericidal activity
1.23. Diclofenac tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate has been administered to a
patient. Where do you except the drug to be released?
(a) Stomach
(b) Oral cavity
(c) Small intestine
(d) Liver
1.24. A microscopic examination of a culture isolate revealed spherical bodies with a smooth
outline growing in long chains. Identify the micro organism.
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Rhizopus stolonifer
(d) Bacillus subtilis
17. Five common advices that are given to patients during administration of certain drugs are
given below. Choose the appropriate drug [only on each] from the list.
(a) Avoid milk products and Milk of magnesia half an hour before or after taking the medicine.
(b) Vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine should not be taken.
(c) Follow regular eating habits, especially immediately before and after taking this medicine.
(d) Do not worry about the reddishdiscolouration in the urine, sweat and saliva
during the treatment.
(e) Take with an antacid.
(i) Disprin (ii) Rifampicin (iii) Isoniazid (iv)Ampicillin
(v) Doxycycline (vi) L-dopa (vii)Ibuprofen (viii) Rantidine
(ix) Insulin (x) Cetirizine
2.4. The ring structures present in the alkaloids listed below are given in (a) — (d). Match
them.
(1) Codeine (a) Phenanthrene
(2) Ergotamine (b) Indole
(c) Quinoline
(d) Iso-quinoline
9. (a) Define [Answer each in one or two sentences only]
(a) Palisade ratio (b) Stomatal number (c) Stomatal index
(d) Vein islet number (e) Vein islet termination number
10. (a) Name the types of Stomata present in the following medicinal plants:
(i) Digitalis purpurea leaves (ii) Datura stramonium leaves
(iii) Cassia acutifolia leaves (iv) Mentha piperita
(b) Give the murexide test for detecting purine derivatives.
11. (a) How Benzodiazepines produce claming effect?
(b) How anxiolytic activity can be correlated?
(c) Why presence of 3(-OH) group confers shorter duration of action?
(d) Why intravenous solution of diazepam cause precipitation when mixed with
aqueous solution?
(e) What is the clinical use of Adenosine?
2.11. For the following potentiometric titrations indicator electrode used is given from
(a) to (d). Match them.
(1) Acid base (a) Silver electrode
(2) Complexometry (b) Glass electrode
(c) Platinum electrode
(d) Mercury-Mercury electrode
40. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is
(A) Venlafaxine
(B) Selegiline
(C) Phenelzine
(D)Amoxapine
41. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which
hypolipidemic agent should not be prescribed?
(A) Clofibrate
(5) Cholestyramine
(C) Lovastatin
(D)Niacin
42. In the study of enzyme kinetics,
Vmax
is said to be attained when
(A) there is an excess of free enzyme as compared to the substrate
(B) virtually all of the enzyme is present as the enzyme-substrate complex and concentration
of the free enzyme is vanishingly small
(C) the maximum velocity of the reaction in the presence of low substrate concentration
(D) when the concentration of free enzyme equals that of the enzyme-substrate complex
43. Serum sample of a patient shows elevated levels of y—glutamyl transferase. The
patient could be suffering from
(A) Kidney disorder (B) Liver disease
(C) Parkinson’s disease (D) Myocardial infraction
44. Acidfast organisms are seen in the sputum of a 48-year old alcoholic man. A test
to confirm whether he needs long term multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis is:
(A) Chest X-ray
(B) Ziehel-Neelsen stain of the sputum
(C) Sputum cytology
(D) Mycobacterial cultures of the sputum
45. The distinguishing features in IR spectra between propionaldehyde and acetone is
(A) Weak-CH stretching and out of plane bending in propionaldehyde
(B) Keto group in acetone
(C) Two methyl groups in acetone
(D) – CH2 group in pionaldehyde
46. Nephelometric measurements are most sensitive for
(A) Clear solution (B) Concentrated solution
(C) Thick suspensions (D) Very dilute suspensions
47. The number of peaks shown by diethyl ether in an NMR spectrum are
(A) Four (B) Two (C) One (D)Five
48. The half-life for a zero order reaction is calculated using
(A) t1 = 0.693/k
(B) t1 = 2.303/k
(C) t1 = 1/ak
(D) t1 = a/2k
49. The biological half-life of procaine in a patient was 35 minutes and its volume of
distribution was estimated to be 60 L. The total clearance rate of Procaine is
(A) 1.188L/min
(B) 0.115L/min
(C) 11.5L/min
(D)5.75L/min
50. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the packing of the powder is
called as
(A) Porosity
(B) True density
(C) Granular density
(D) Bulk density
51. A co-solvent used in the preparation of parenteral products is:
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Dimethyl acetamide (D) Phenol
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.
52. In mass spectroscopy, positively charged ions can be produced by
(P) Heating of the sample
(Q) Bombarding the sample with high energy electrons
(R) Bombarding the sample with high energy protons
(S) Chemical ionization
(A) Q, S (B) Q, R (C) P, R (D)P, S
53. A plastisizer and a high boiling point solvent used in the preparation of nial
lacquers are
(P) Butyl stea rate (Q) Ethyl lactate (R) Ethyl alcohol (S) Acetone
(A) P, Q (B) Q, S (C) R, S (D)Q, R
54. Two of the following attributes are true for describing the mechanism of action of
Thiabendazole.
(P) Neuromuscular blocking causing spastic paralysis
(Q) Blocks the response of the Ascaris muscle to ACH, causins flaccid paralysis in the worms
(R) Inhibits the Helminth specific enzyme fumarate reductase
(5) Arrest nematode cell divisions in metaphase by interfering with microtubule
assembly
(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, S (D)Q, R
55. The colour and flavour of Saffron are due to —
(P) Crocin (Q) Crocetin (R) Safranal
(5) Crepenyic acid
(A) R, S (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)Q, P
56. Predict the two impurities which are likely to be present in Glipizide
(P) 5-methyl-N-[2-(4-sulphamoyl phenyl) enthyl] pyrazine-2-carboxamide.
(Q) 5-methyl-N-[2-(2-sulphamoyl phenyl) enthyl] pyrazine-2-carboxamide.
(R) Cyclohexanamine
(S) Cyclohexane
(A) P, R (B) P, Q (C) R, Q (D) R, S
57. Calcipotriene, a synthetic Vitamin D3 analogue has the following attributes
(P) Pronounced antirachitic activity
(Q) Inhibits epidermal cell proliferation and enhances cell differentiation
(R) Used as a topical application in the treatment of moderate plaque psoriasis
(S) Effect on calcium metabolism is 200 times more than Ergocalciferol
(A) Q, R (B) P, Q (C) R, S (D)Q, S
58. Insulin when released from the pancreatic 3 cells
(P) Can sequester blood glucose by forming a complex with it.
(Q) gets fully conjugated with glucuronic acid immediately, to be released upon suitable
stimuli in normal health.
(R) Acts on the transporter molecules to facilitate glucose movement across the cell
membranes.
(S) Increases storage of glucose to glycogen in the liver.
(A) P, R (B) R, S (C) P. S (D)Q, S
Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct
combination among the alternatives A, B, C and D.
59.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Drugs Group II Titrants used in IP assays
(P) Ascorbic acid (1) TBAH
(Q) Pyridoxine
HCI (2) Iodine
(R) Dapsone (3) HCIO4
(S) Fluorouracil (4) Sodium nitrite
60.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Umbelliferous
fruit Group II Diagnostic character
(P) Fenel (1) Wavy scierenchyma
(Q) Indian Dill (2) Branched and unbranched vittae
(R) Coriander (3) Reticulaterly lignified parenchyma
(S) Anise (4) Lateral ridges with vascular bundles
61.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Enzyme systems responsible for phase 2 conjugation
Group II Types
pathways
(P) UDP — glucuronosyl transferase (1) N-methylation
(Q) ATP-sulfurylase & APS-phosphokinase (2) Sulphate
conjugation
(R) Acly synthatase & transacetylase (3) Glucuronidation
(5) ATP-methionine adenosine transferase (4) Amino acid
conjugation
62.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Drugs Group II Titrants used in IP assays
(P) Ascorbic acid (1) TBAH
(Q) Pyridoxine
HCI (2) Iodine
(R) Dapsone (3) HCIO4
(S) Fluorouracil (4) Sodium nitrite

42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may
oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be
(A) shielded
(B) shifted
(C) hydrogen bonded
(D) deshielded
43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it
should undergo
(A) evaporation
(B) condensation
(C) nebulisation
(D) precipitation
44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves
(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions
(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase
(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly
(D) block thiamine transport
45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that
(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation
(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in
(A) very low density lipoproteins
(B) low density lipoproteins
(C) cholesterol
(D) high density lipoproteins
47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is
(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new
RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission
(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization
(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors
(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot
i d
48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which
contain
(A) multi-layered tissues or cells
(B) well defined particles which can be counted
(C) oil globules
(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured
49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is
(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal
schizolysigenous oil glands
(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains
(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil
(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows
50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid
(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template
(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-
RNA
(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid
(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the
ribosome
51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a
(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin
(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of
hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses
(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin
(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of
hyperimmune serum of horses
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.
52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies
(P) organic content of the drug
(Q) mineral matter in the drug
(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.
(S) woody matters present in the drug
(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S
53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons
(P) Acetaldehyde
(Q) Butadiene
(R) Formaldehyde
(S) Benzene
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S
54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include
(P) topical atropine
(Q) topical pilocarpine
(R) oral acetazolamide
(S) oral pilocarpine
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by
(P) Cascade impactor
(Q) light scatter decay
(R) Karl-Fischer method
(5) JR spectrophotometry
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are
(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u
m

(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule
(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction
(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group
(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q
57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are
(P) slow localization in target tissue
(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information
(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information
(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are
(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins
(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables
(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite
(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight
(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S
Group I
Group II
(Tablet Additives)
(Examples)
(P) Binder  (1) Acacia
(Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil
(R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
(5) Direct compression
diluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose
(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4
(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3
(C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1
(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1
61.
Group I
Group II
(JR Detectors )
(Composition)
(P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni
(Q) Pyroelectric
Detector  (2) Bi-Sb
(R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon
(5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate
(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1
(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2
62
Group I
Group II
(Alkaloid )
(Ring system)
(P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline
(Q)
Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine
(R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane
(S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine
(A) P – 4 Q – 3 R – 2 S – 1
(B) P – 2 Q – 4 R – 3 S – 1
(C) P – 3 Q – 4 R – 1 S – 2
(D) P – 2 Q – 1 R – 1 5 – 3
63.
Group I
Group II
(Immunoglobulins
(Actions)
[Ig])
(P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic
(Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic
(R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins
(S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial
(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2
(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3
(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2
(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2
64
Group I
Group II
(Antibiotics)
(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)
(P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus
(Q)
Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis
(R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus
(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4
(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1
(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4
(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1
Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each
question from among the options A, B, C and D.
Data for questions 66 to 68:
Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical
screening.
(A) P
(C) P
Group I
(Synthetic
Group II
estrogtenic_drugs_
(Methods of synthesis)
)
(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl
(P) Ethinyl
chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +
estradiol
Cd4
(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard
(Q) Dienoestrol
reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated
with alcoholic KOH
(R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent
removal of water
(5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide
Group I
Group II
(Immunosuppressants
(Mechanism of action)
)
(P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells
(Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further
conversion inhibits purine metabolism
(R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin
(5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells
66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is
(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin
(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin
(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin
(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin
67. Microscopical character of trichomes is
(A) unicellular, warty
(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells
(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells
(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells
68. The drug gives positive
(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test
(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test
Data for questions 69 and 70:
In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-
amino sulfomyl-6-chloro–ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently
it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.
69. Select the reagent P
(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde
(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde
70. The final product Y is
(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide
(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide
(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide
(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide
Data for questions 70 to 73:
Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to
yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an
aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.
71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?
(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04
(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04
72. Name the aliphatic amine used
(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine
(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine
73. Name the metabolite
(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil
(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide
Data for questions 74 to 76:
Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is
250 mm.
74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260
75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270
76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250
Data for questions 77 and 78:
In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and
subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium
sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose
absorbance is measured
77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI
(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid
(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid
78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour
(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride
(B) Ninhydrin reagent
(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde
(D) Phloroglucinol
Data for questions 79 and 80:
Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal
muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.
79. Carbidopa is used because
(A) it crosses blood brain barrier
(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase
(C) it inhibits MAO type A
(D) it inhibits MAO type B
80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA
(A) Dementia
(B) Hypertension
(C) Dyskinesia
(D) Excitotoxicity
Data for questions 81 and 82:
The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.
The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12
hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 – h r1.
42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which mayoppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be(A) shielded(B) shifted(C) hydrogen bonded(D) deshielded43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because itshould undergo(A) evaporation(B) condensation(C) nebulisation(D) precipitation44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly(D) block thiamine transport45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in(A) very low density lipoproteins(B) low density lipoproteins(C) cholesterol(D) high density lipoproteins47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of newRNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eoti d48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs whichcontain(A) multi-layered tissues or cells(B) well defined particles which can be counted(C) oil globules(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidalschizolysigenous oil glands(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-RNA(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on theribosome51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum of horsesQ.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options arecorrect. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies(P) organic content of the drug(Q) mineral matter in the drug(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.(S) woody matters present in the drug(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons(P) Acetaldehyde(Q) Butadiene(R) Formaldehyde(S) Benzene(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include(P) topical atropine(Q) topical pilocarpine(R) oral acetazolamide(S) oral pilocarpine(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by(P) Cascade impactor(Q) light scatter decay(R) Karl-Fischer method(5) JR spectrophotometry(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri um(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are(P) slow localization in target tissue(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, SGroup IGroup II(Tablet Additives)(Examples)(P) Binder  (1) Acacia(Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil(R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose(5) Direct compressiondiluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3(C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-161.Group IGroup II(JR Detectors )(Composition)(P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni(Q) PyroelectricDetector  (2) Bi-Sb(R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon(5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-262Group IGroup II(Alkaloid )(Ring system)(P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline(Q)Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine(R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane(S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine(A) P – 4 Q – 3 R – 2 S – 1(B) P – 2 Q – 4 R – 3 S – 1(C) P – 3 Q – 4 R – 1 S – 2(D) P – 2 Q – 1 R – 1 5 – 363.Group IGroup II(Immunoglobulins(Actions)[Ig])(P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic(Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic(R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins(S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-264Group IGroup II(Antibiotics)(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)(P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus(Q)Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis(R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae(S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for eachquestion from among the options A, B, C and D.Data for questions 66 to 68:Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemicalscreening.(A) P(C) PGroup I(SyntheticGroup IIestrogtenic_drugs_(Methods of synthesis))(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl(P) Ethinylchloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +estradiolCd4(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard(Q) Dienoestrolreaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylatedwith alcoholic KOH(R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequentremoval of water(5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylideGroup IGroup II(Immunosuppressants(Mechanism of action))(P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells(Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on furtherconversion inhibits purine metabolism(R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin(5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin67. Microscopical character of trichomes is(A) unicellular, warty(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells68. The drug gives positive(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin testData for questions 69 and 70:In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-amino sulfomyl-6-chloro–ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequentlyit is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.69. Select the reagent P(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde70. The final product Y is(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxideData for questions 70 to 73:Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide toyield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with analiphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S0472. Name the aliphatic amine used(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine73. Name the metabolite(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanideData for questions 74 to 76:Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is250 mm.74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)26075. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)27076. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250Data for questions 77 and 78:In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution andsubsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammoniumsulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whoseabsorbance is measured77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride(B) Ninhydrin reagent(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde(D) PhloroglucinolData for questions 79 and 80:Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletalmuscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.79. Carbidopa is used because(A) it crosses blood brain barrier(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase(C) it inhibits MAO type A(D) it inhibits MAO type B80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA(A) Dementia(B) Hypertension(C) Dyskinesia(D) ExcitotoxicityData for questions 81 and 82:The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 – h r1.

63.
(A)P-2Q-4R-1S-3
(B)P-4Q-1R-3S-2
(C)P-3Q-2R-45-1
(D)P-3Q-1R-25-4
Group I
Terms Group II Explanation
(P) Saturated
(1) Pounds of water vapour carried by one pound of dry air under any given
air
set of conditions
(Q) Dew point (2) The water vapour is in equilibrium with liquid water at the given
conditions of temperature and pressure
(R) Humid
(3) The volume in cubic feet occupied by one pound dry of air and its
volume
accompanying water vapour
(S) Humidity (4) Temperature to which a mixture of air and water vapour must be cooled
in order to become saturated.
64.
(A) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3
(B) P – 3 Q – 1 R – 2 S – 4
Group I
Antibiotic Group II Test organism for microbiological assay IP
(P) Bleomycin (1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(Q) Nystatin (2) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(R) Carbenicillin (3) Bacillus subtilis
(S) Streptomycin (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Data for Q.66 — 80 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each
question from among the options A, B, C and D.
Common data for questions 66 and 67:
A sample of
Cinnamomum zeylanicum
purchased from the market was evaluated for its
authenticity.
66. It shows
(A) presence of cork and cortex (B) absence of cork and cortex
(C) absence of phloem fibres (D) presence of xylem parenchyma
67. Volatile oil should not be less than
(A)
0.05°h
(B)
0.20°h
(C)
0.50°h
(D) 1.00°h
Common data for questions 68, 69 and 70:
Chloroacetic acid and hydrazine are treated together with X to get semicarbazido acetic acid in
which ring closure takes place to 1-amino hydantoin. It is subsequently treated with 2-
diacetoxy methyl-5-nitrofuran to get Nitrofurantoin.
68. Reagetn ‘X’ is
(A) Cuprous chlodride (B) Potassium cyanate
(C) Silver nitrate (D) Mercurous chloride
69. Its IUPAC name is
(A) 1-(5-nitrofurfuryl) hydantoin
(B) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidene hydroxyl)hydantoin
(C) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidine amino) hydantoin
(D) 1-(5-aminfurfurylidine nitro) dydantoin
70. Its gastrointestinal tolerance can be improved without interfering with oral
absorption by preparing a
(A) solid dispersion (B) prodrug
(C) large crystalline form (Macrodantin) (D) suspension
Common data for questions 71 and 72:
A compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H4O exhibits a strong absorption band at 1730
cm1 in IR spectrum. On reduction, it is converted into ‘Y’ which shows a strong band at
3640cm*
71. Assign the band in X to
(A) CH3 (B) C = C (C) C = 0 (D)CH2C=O
72. The strong band in Y is due to
(A) -C-C (B) -C-O-C- (C) =CH2 (D)-OH
Common data for questions 73, 74 and 75:
In the management of asthma, the drugs used are Salmeterol, Zafirlukast, Budesonide,
Nedocromil sodium and Bambuterol.
73. Zafirlukast acts as
(A) 2 adrenoceptor agonist
(B) Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagnoist
(C) uscarinic receptor antagonist
(D) Antihistamine
74. A prodrug of terbutaline is
(A) Zafirlukast (B) Salmeterol
(C) Bambuterol (D) Nedocromil sodium
75. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time
(A) Budesonide (B) Zafirlukast (C) Salmeterol (D)Bambuterol
Common data for questions 76, 77 and 78:
In a pharmaceutical industry, batch filtration of liquids where the proportion of solids to liquids
is high is to be carried out. The complete recovery of solids is required. After filtration, the
filtrate, which is corrosive, gives a crystalline product on evaporation. The liquid tends to
deposit scales or crystals on the heating surface during evaporation.
76. A suitable filtration equipment is
(A) Plate and frame filter press (B) Leaf filters
(C) Meta filters (D) Membrane filters
77. The filter aid used in the above filtration is
(A) Sand (B) Nylon fibre cloth
(C) Activated carbon (D) Filter paper
78. A suitable evaporator is
(A) falling film evaporator (B) forced circulation evaporator
(C) vertical evaporator (D) horizontal tube evaporator
Common data for questions 79 and 80:
Isoprenoid biosynthesis is involved in the production of many biologically important
compounds such as Cholesterol, Steriod Hormones, Vitamin K, Vitamin E and bile acids.
79. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the patway, catalyzes
(A) side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones
(B) the reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosyntheis.
(C) the reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D.
(D) steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.
80. The inhibition of HMG-C0A teductase is a strategy used in the treatment of
(A) Familia hyperchlesterolemia (B) Vitamin K deficiency
(C) Inflammation in the joints (D) Hepatic parenchymal disease
Linked Answer Questions: Q.81a to Q85b Carry Two Marks Each. Statement for Linked Answer
Questions 81a to 81b:
81. (A) The selective COX-2 inhibitor is
(A) Ketorolac (B) Rofecoxib (C) Indomethacin (D)Naproxen
(B) The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking
(A) Antiallergic drugs (B) Anxiolytic drugs
(C) Antihypertensive drugs (D) Oral antidiabetic agents
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a to 82b:
A drug solution has an initial potency of 300 mg/lOml. When stored in a refrigerator for 30
days, its potency was found to be 100 mg/10m1.
82. (A) The rate constant, assuming that the drug solution undergoes first order kinetics, is:
(A) 0.0366 day1 (B) 0.0074 day1 (C) 0.0174 day1 (D)0.0506 day1
(B) Half-life of the drug solution, under these conditions is:
(A) 9.4 days (B) 19 days (C) 47 days (D)4.7 days
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a to 83b:
Ginger is a widely used herbal drug, containing many chemical constituents.
83. (A) The pungent principle present in it, is
(A) Zingiberol (B) Zingiberene (C) Gingerol (D)Cineole
(B) It’s decomposition product, on boiling with
2°h
KOH is
(A) Zingiberone (B) Shogaol
(C) Gingediol (D) Gingediol acetate
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a to 84b:
2, 6-dimethyl phenol and chloroacetone on reaction gives ‘X’, which on treatment with
hydroxylamine and hydrochloric acid gives an intermediate product. This on further treatment
with Raney nickel in acid, gives the final product.
84. (A) The product ‘X’ is:
(A) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-propanone
(B) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-butanone
(C) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-isopropanone
(D) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-pentanone
(B) The final product is
(A) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)isopropylamine
(B) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)ethylamine
(C) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)butylamien
(D) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)pentylamine
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 85a to 85b:
An organic compound ‘X’ has an absorption maxima at 217 nm. Its Emax is 16,000. the
absorbance is 0.64 when the cell length is 1 cm.
85. (A) The molar concentration of ‘X’ is
(A) 5×105 (B) 4×105 (C) 4×104 (D)5×102
(B) If the molecular weight is 56.06, its concentration in gms/ml is:
(A) 2.5×10 6 (B) 0.25×10 6 (C) 5×10 (D) 2.24×10 6
1. The structural feature common fro propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, metopropol in
the side chain is
(A) Isopropylamino propan-2-ol
(B) Dimethylamino propan-2-ol
(C) Diethylamino propan-2-ol
(D) Dibutylamino propan-2-ol
2. When N-methyl group of morphine is replaced with an allyl group, the compound formed is
(A) Naloxone-morphine antagonist
(B) Natrexone-morphine agonist
(C) Nalorphine-morphine antagonist
(D) Nalbuphine-morphine agonist/antagonist
3. Nitrazepam can be synthesized from
(A) 2-Bromo-5-amino benzophenone
(B) 2-Nitro-2-chloro acetophenone
(C) 2-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexanone
(D) 2-Amino-5-nitro benzophenone
4. Clavulanic acid has a beta lactam king fused to
(A) Thienyl system
(B) Thiadiazole system
(C) Thiazolidine system
(D) Oxazolidine system
5. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is
(A) Sulfinpyrazone
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ticlopidine
(D) Acetaminophen
6. Wild cherry bark contains prunasin which is a
(A) Phenolic glycoside
(B) Isothiocyanate glycoside
(C) Coumarin glycoside
(D) Cyanogenetic glycoside
7. Ephedra sinica and Ephedra equisetina can be distinguished by type of
(A) Branching
(B) Stomata
(C) Scaly leaves
(D)Alkaloids
8. Microprapagation of the plants is carried out through
(A) Cross fertilization
(B) Seed germination
(C) Plant tissue culture
(D) Grafting
9. Acontitine belongs to the group of
(A) Steroidal alkaloids
(B) Terpenoidal alkaloids
(C) Indole alkaloids
(D) Quinoline alkaloids
10. Crude fiber value of a drug is a measure of
(A) Soft tissue matter
(B) Woody matter
(C) Mineral matter
(D) Organic matter
11. One of the units used for expressing pressure is ‘torr’ and it is equal to
(A) cm of Hg
(B) mm of Hg
(C) psi
(D)gauss
12. Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of
(A) Fragment ion
(B) Metastable ion
(C) Molecular ion
(D) Rearrangement ion
13. Nuclear magnetic moment is NOT shown by
(A)
13C
(B) 16Q
(C)
1H
(D)
15N
14. Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance
(A) Molecular weight
(B) Detectability
(C) Reversibility

(D) Reproducibility
15. A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a
solution of
(A) NaCI
(B)
Hg2CI2
(C) KCI
(D)
Na2SO4
16. Metoclopramide is generally used for
(A) Prophylaxis of vomiting
(B) Preventing motion sickness
(C) Treating irritable bowel syndrome
(D) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency

18. Identify the non-pathogenic organism
(A) Mycobacterium bovis
(B) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(C) Mycobacterium avium
(D) Mycobacterium intracellulare
19. Bioassays are carried out to
(A) Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug
(B) Avoid clinical trails for new drugs
(C) Detect the impurity in a given drug
(D) Screen fro pharmacognetic influences of new drugs.
20. A direct way of studying idiosyncratic reactions to a given drug is by
(A) changing the route of drug administration
(B) changing the assay method
(C) pharmacogenomics
(D) structure activity relationship studies of a family of compounds
21. An example of haemopoietic growth factor is
(A) platelet derived growth factor
(B) epidermal growth factor
(C) iron dextran
(D) erythropoietin
22. Safranin is used as a reagent to detect
(A) Gram-negative bacteria
(B) Gram-positive bacteria
(C) Acid fast bacteria
(D) Myxozoa
23. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with
(A) Oral anticoagulants
(B) Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents
(C) Hydantoin anticonvulsants
(D) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
24. Simvastatin belongs to
(A) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents
(B) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents
(C) Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents
(D) Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents
25. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with
(A) Cytarabine
(B) Acyclovir
(C) Zidovudine
(D)Amantadine
26. The measure of cohesive strength of the cross linking that occurs between gelatin
molecules and is proportional to the molecular weight of gelatin is called
(A) Bloom strength
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface tension
(D) Partition coefficient
27. A water soluble substance used as coating material in microencapsulation process is:
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Silicone
(C) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
(D) Paraffin
28. One of the following is used as a solubilizing agent to solubilize testosterone in
pharmaceutical liquid dosage forms.
(A) Sucrose monoesters
(B) Lanolin esters
(C) Lanolin ethers
(D) Tweens
29. One of the following is used as a pH dependent controlled release excipient.
(A) Carnauba wax
(B) Hydroxy proply methyl cellulose phthalate
(C) Methyl cellulose
(D) Glyceryl monostearate
30. The Schedule in D & C act that deals with the standards for disinfectant fluids is:
(A) Schedule B
(B) Schedule F
(C) Schedule 0
(D)Schedule M
Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each.
31. The carboxyl group of aspirin is esterified with N-acetyl-p-aminophenol to get
(A) 3-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate
(B) 4-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate
(C) O-(2-hydroxy benzoyl) salicylic acid
(D) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
32. JUPAC system of nomenclature for diclophenac sodium (BP) is
(A) Sodium 2-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(B) Sodium 3-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(C) Sodium 2-[(2-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(D) Sodium 2-[(6-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
33. 1-(2-Aminoethyl) perdydroazocine on treatment with S-methyl isothiourea gives rise to an
adrenergic neuron blocking agent
(A) Bethanidine
(B) Mecamylamine
(C) Guanadrel
(D)Gauenthidine
34. Quercetin is
(A) 5, 7, 3-Trihydroxy flavone
(B) 5, 7, 3, 4-Tetradydroxy flavone
(C) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonol
(D) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonone
35. Meconic acid is a chemical marker for the genus
(A) Piper
(B) Pilocarpus
(C) Prunus
(D)Papaver
36. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is
(A) Demecolcine
(B) Paclitaxel
(C) Vinblastin
(D)Brevifolicin
37. The absorption maximum for polar compounds is usually shifted with change in
polarity of the solvents due to
(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Chemical reaction
(C) Ionization of the compounds
(D) Change in the chromophone
38. A titration in which potential applied across two electrodes is maintained at a constant
value and the current is measured and plotted against volume of titrant is
(A) Potentiometric titration (B) Amperometric titration
(C) Displacement titration (D) Conductometric titration
39. The parameter in the elution curve that is proportional to the concentration of a compound
in gas chromatographic effluent is the
(A) Number of peaks
(B) Width of the peak
(C) Area under the peak
(D) Shape of the peak
40. A drug solution has a half life of 21 days. Assuming that the drug undergoes first order
kinetics, how long will it take for the potency to drop to 9O/c of the initial
potency?
(A) 3.2 days
(B) 9.6 days
(C) 16 days
(D)6.4 days
41. An amphoteric surfactant used in pharmaceutical disperse system is:
(A) Bile salts
(B) Lecithin
(C) Sorbitan monolaurate
(D) Sorbitan monostearate
42. An abrasive used in dentifrices is
(A) Dicalcium phosphate
(B) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose
(C) Sodium lauryl sulfate
(D) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
43. An electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute molecules by
creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied electrical
current or voltage is called
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) lontophoresis
(C) Osmosis
(D)Implants
44. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However,
recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance.
She has occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those
mentioned below:
(A) Paracetamol
(B) Celecoxib
(C) Piroxicam
(D)Naproxen
45. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by
(A) Plasmin
(B) Renin
(C) Urokinase
(D)Ptylin
46. Which one of the these best describes a process carried out to render a drug
pharmacokinetically more acceptable?
(A) Enteric coating if diclofenac.
(B) Co-administration of aspirin with antacids.
(C) Use of colloidal suspensions or liposomes for administering amphotericin-B.
(D) Synthesis of an analogue to obtain high receptor specificity.
47. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is
administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin
(A) Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly.
(B) Has a methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than
erythromycin.
(C) Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract.
(D) Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.
48. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was
administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?
(A) Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier.
(B) Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine.
(C) Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine.
(D) Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine
receptors.
49. Autoimmunity refers to
(A) an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen.
(B) failure to distinguish between self and non-self
(C) an automatic segregation of T and B cells.
(D) failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.
50. Which of these is true about the discovery of HB antigen in the blood of people infected
with Hepatitis-B?
(A) It provided a basis for vaccine design.
(B) It indicated that specific vaccines cannot be designed for Hepatitis-B.
(C) It has not been of much significance.
(D) It indicated that Hepatitis-B is a viral disease
51. Which drug molecule DOES NOT have phenylethyl amine moiety?
(A) Amphetamine
(B) Glyburide
(C) Pheniramine
(D)Mescaline
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correèt combination among A, B, C and D.
52. There are two methods by which the duration of action of insulin may be prolonged.
(P) Binding with resins.
(Q) Esterification of amio acid residues.
(R) Forming of complex of insulin with protein.
(5) Modification of particle size.
(A) Q, R (B) R, S (C) P.S (D)P, R
53. The attributes of cycloserine are
(P) No tautomerism shown.
(Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form.
(R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH.
(S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH.
(A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D)P, R
54. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological
properties.
(P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation.
(Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened.
(R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D)Q, R
55. The identification of propellants in pharamaceutical aerosols is carried out by
(P) Gas-chromatography
(Q) Tag-open cup apparatus
(R) Pyknometer
(S) JR Spectrophotometer
(A) P, Q (B) P, S (C) Q, R (D)R, S
56. Schedule ‘H’ and Schedule ‘5’ as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deal with the following.
(P) Prescription drugs which are required to be sold by retail only on prescription of R.M.P.
(Q) Standards for cosmetics
(R) Biological and special products
(5) List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics and soaps
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)R, S
57. Myristica fragrans Houtt has two of the following characteristics.
(P) An indeciduous tree, which produces drupaceous, pale yellow fruits.
(Q) Each fruit has several round seeds with smooth surface and lignaceous tegument, and the
orange red fleshy aril — the mace, is present inside the seed.
(R) A deciduous tall tree, which produces lignaceous capsules.
(S) Each fruit has a unique avoid seed, with lignified tegument, surrounded by orange red
laciniate fleshly aril — the mace.
(A) Q, R (B) P, R (C) P.S (D)Q, S
58. Jn size exclusion chromatography the stationary phases used are:
(P) Alumina (Q) Dextran (R) Agarose (S)Styrene
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D)P, R
Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct
Group II
Group I
Intermediates from which Group I drugs are
Synthetic Drugs
synthesized
(P) Buclizin (1) Aziridin and thiophosphoryl chloride
(Q)
C h 10 ro ph en es
(2) 4-Chlorophenol
in
(R) Thiotepa (3) 4-Chlorobenzhydryl chloride
(S) Alprazolam (4) 2-Amino-5-Chloro benzophenone
Codes:
(A) P – 3 Q – 2 R – 1 S-4
(B) P – 4 Q – 2 R – 1 S – 3
(C) P – 2 Q – 4 R – 3 S-1
(D) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3
60
Group I
Group II
Cardiac Agents
Mechanism of action
(P) Digitoxin (1) Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking
calcium channels
(Q)
(2) Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx
Dobutamine
through beta receptor blockade
(R) Sotalol (3) Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimulation of
adenylate cyclase.

(4) Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase
(S) Nicardipine
pump.
Codes:
(A)P-4Q-3R-2S-1
(B)P-3Q-4R-1S-2
(C)P-4Q-2R-3S-1
(D)P-4Q-3R-1S-2
61.
Group I
Group II
Technique employed
Source of Radiation
(P) Visible spectrophotometry (1)
Rf
Source transmitter
(Q) JR spectrophotometry (2) Xenon lamp
(R) NMR spectrophotometry (3) Tungsten lamp
(S) Fluorescence (4) Nernst glower
spectrophotometry
Codes:
(A) P – 2 Q – 4 R-3 S-1
(B) P – 3 Q – 2 R – 1 S – 4
(C) P – 3 Q – 4 R- 1 S-2
(D) P – 4 Q – 1 R – 3 S – 2
1. In a comparative chemical study of Morphine, Codeine and Thebaine, the following
observations are noted. Give your inferences
(a) Morphine forms dibenzoate, Codeine forms a monobenzoate
(b) Morphine gives a positive ferric chloride test and others do not
(c) Codeine gives one molecule of CH3I when heated with HI where as thebaine gives two
molecules CH3I
(d) Morphine on treatment with halogenoacid gives a monohalogen derivative
(e) All the three alkaloids combine with CH3I to form methiiodide
5. With respect to Ceylon Cinnamon, give
(a) Botanical source with family
(b) Main active constituent with its chemical nature
(c) Chemical structure of the main active constituent
6. Assign the bands in the JR spectrum for appropriate groups given below:
>C=O, aromatic compounds, -OH, >C=C<, -CC (a 3700 — 3500 cm1 (b) 1740 — 1720 cm1 (c) 1667 — 1640 cm1 (d) 2260 — 2100 cm1 (e) 900 — 675 cm1 7. In the microbiological assay of ERYTHROMYCJN, I.P. (a) Name the organism used (b) Name the solvent used (c) What is the buffer used? (d) In what pH is the experiment done? (e) What is the incubation temperature? 8. (a) 0.25 g of a compound C10H15N0.HCIwas titrated with 0.1 M HCIO4. It consumed 12.5 ml of the titrant. (i) What is the stoichiometric factor used for the calculation of percentage purity? (ii) Calculate the percentage purity (b) Write the formula used and calculate the absorbance of a solution of a compound having and Emax 6200, when 0.05 mM solution is measured in a 1 cm cell. 9. (a) Complete the following reactions giving appropriate structures. 0-toluidine is treated with 2-Bromo propionyl bromide, the resulting product is treated with propylamien to get the drug. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug belong? 10. 2-amino-4, 5-dimethoxy benzoic acid NaOCN ) A PCI3 /PCI5 B NH3 C 1 (2 Furoyl piperazine) ) D (a) Write the products at A, B, C, D. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug D belong? 11. 2H — 1,2,4 — Benzothiadiazine — 7 — sulfonamide — 6 — chloro-1, 1-dioxide, can be modified to change biological properties. Comment on the effect of the following modifications to the structure. (a) Saturation of -3-4-double bond (b) Substitution of 6-chloro by —CF3 (c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5 (d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2 (e) Saturation of 3, 4-double bond, insertion of a benzyl group at position 3, and substitution of 6-Cl by —CF3 12. Draw the structures of the following (a) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-pyridyl)-propyl]-amine (b) 4-amino-N-(2-diethyl-aminoethyl) benzamide (c) N1-(5-methyl iso oxazol-3-yl)-u1Ifanilamide (d) 2-(2-fluoro biphenyl-4-yl) propionic acid (e) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-l-yl-l-(4-tolyl)prop-l-enyl)pyridine 13. Draw the structures of the major first phase metabolic products of the following drugs by the given route. (a) Phenobaritone-by aromatic hydroxylation (b) Procaine — by hydrolysis (c) Imipramine — by N-mono dealkylation (d) Nor-epinephrine- by oxidative deamination (e) 6-merceptopurine — by oxidation 14. Name the enzymes that catalyze the following reactions (a) Acetoacetyl CoA - Acetyl CoA (b) Oxaloacetate - Malate (c) Riboflavin - Flavin mononucleotide (d) HMG — CoA - Mevalonate (e) Glutamate - GABA 15. For the following drugs name the type of interaction and the molecule involved in exerting their pharmacological response (a) Captopril (b) Diltiazem (c) Diazepam (d) Rifampicin (e) Haloperidol 16. Name five components of an aerosol package 17. A drug solution has an initial potency of 125 mg I 5 ml. After storing for 30 days in a refrigerator, the potency is found to be 100 mg I 5 ml. what is the half life of the drug solution under these conditions? The drug undergoes first order kinetics. Give the equations and steps involved. 18. Name the five forces that can act between solid particles in Tablet manufacture. 19. (a) Give four reasons for pH adjustment in parenteral preparations (b) In which year was the Pharmacy Council of India first constituted by the Central Government? 20. In five different patients, deficiency of vitamins were diagnosed. The diagnosis were (a) Scurvy (b) Wet or dry Beriberi (c) Inflamed tongue, glossitis (d) Pernicious anemia (e) Osteomalacia in adults 21. (a) Define Schick Test Toxin, IP. (b) What is it’s dose? (c) What is its’s pH? (d) Give it’s storage conditions (e) Define Schick control 22. The antibiotics VANCOMYCIN, CEFALEXIN, FUSIDIC ACID, ERYTHROMYCIN and BICYCLOMYCIN belong to one of the following classes. Include them in the appropriate class Cyclic dipeptide, 3-lactam, Macrolide, Tetracyclic triterpene, Glycopeptide. 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 1.1 Starting material used for the synthesis of L-Thyroxine is: (a) 2 amino-5-chloro acetophenone (b) phenyl alanine (c) 2 amino-5-chloro benzophenone (d) L-tyrosine 1.2 One of the following antianxiety agent is an azaspirodecanedione derivative. (a) Lorazepam (b) Cycloheptadiene (c) Meprobamate (d) Buspirone 1.3 Include the following drug under proper classification. NIFEDIPINE. (a) Quinoline derivative (b) Aryl piperidines (c) Iso Quinoline derivative (d) Pyridine derivative 1.4 Acetazolamide can be synthesized from one of the following intermediates. (a) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3-thiazole (b) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-thiadiazole (c) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 2, 3-thiadazole (d) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-tetrazole 1.5 Choose the correct trichomes of Digitalis purpurea. (a) Numerous covering trichomes and a few glandular trichomes (b) Few covering trichomes (c) Few glandular trichomes and few covering trichomes (d) Few glandular trichomes 1.6 PANAXADIOL is a constituent of (a) Ginger (b) Jatamanst (c) Ginseng (d) Pepper 1.7 The plant harmone which shows specific effect on the cell division is: (a) Auxins (b) Abscisic Acid (c) Cytokin ins (d) Ethylene 1.8 One of the following condition is maintained in programmed temperature gas chromatography. (a) Temperature of the whole column is raised during analysis (b) Temperature at the sample injection system is raised (c) Temperature at the detector is gradually raised (d) Temperature at the recorder alone is raised 1.9 A BOLOMETER consists of (a) two metals welded together (b) a thin blackened platinum strip in an evacuated vessel (c) deuterated triglycine sulphate (d) tungsten wire 1.10 Choose the correct excipient for enhancing solubility in Tablet manufacture. (a) PEG (b) Microcrystalline cellulose (c) Talc (d) Lactose 1.11 Two or more ions present together can be determined successfully by polarograph even if their half wave potentials overlap or interfere by (a) titration (b) complexation (c) filtration (d) heating 1.12 One of the following is a selective. SEROTONIN reuptake inhibitor (a) Desipramine (b) Fluoxetine (c) Buspropion (d) Maprotiline 1.13 PLasmodial resistance of CHLOROQUINE is due to (a) induction of inactivating enzymes (b) change in receptor structure (c) increase in the activity of DNA repair mechanism (d) decreased carrier mediated drug transport 1.14 One of the following actions of opioid analgesics is medicated via kappa receptors (a) Cerebral vascular dilation (b) Euphoria (c) Spinal analgesia (d) Physical dependence 1.15 One of the following drugs has activity against Herpes simplex virus type I and is used topically Systematic administration of the same results in bone marrow depression hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity. (a) Acyclovir (b) Amantadine (c) Vadarabine (d) Idoxuridine 1.16 A woman has to be treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found hypersensitive to Penicillin V. The cultures now reveal a strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which one would be the best choice for the patient? (a) Amoxicillin (b) Erythromycin (c) Cefaclor (d) Cyclacillin 1.17 The units of measurement for conductance is: (a) Ohms (b) Amperes (c) Mhos (d) Milli volts 1.18 The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or plastic like, by the addition of (a) Sorbitol (b) Povidone (c) PEG (d) HPMC 1.19. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a (a) controlled released product (b) hard gelatin capsule (c) tablet (d) solution 1.20. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on (a) total body clearance of the drug (b) percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins (c) fraction of drug excreted unchanged in urine (d) apparent volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma 1.21. BROWNE’s tubes are the mot commonly used chemical indicator for (a) Ethylene oxide sterilization (b) Radiation sterilization (c) Heat process sterilization (d) Filtration sterilization 1.22. A specimen obtained from a patient’s cerebrospinal fluid, cultured in specialized media for about five weeks showed the presence of bent rods and tested positive with Ziehi-Neelsen reagent. Identify the organism. (a) Niesseria meningitidis (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (c) Bacteroides fragilis (d) Leptospira interrogans 1.23. Staphylococcus aureus is used for the I.P. assay of (a) Doxycycline (b) Bleomycin (c) Kanamycin (d) Carbenicillin 1.24. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members (a) Six (b) Nine (c) Five (d) Seven 1.25 Drug combination WARFARIN/VITAMIN-K results in a specific interaction. Identify. (a) Antagonistic (b) Increased sedation (c) No known interaction (d) Harmful only in the presence of oxidizing agent 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 In the glucuronidation reaction of OXAZEPAM — the functional group responsible is: (a) —OH (b) —COOH (c) —SH (d)—NH2 2.2. Benzhydryl bromide when treated with 2-dimethyl amino ethanol in presence of K2C03 gives one of the following. (a) 2-diphenyl ethoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (b) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl ethylamine (c) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (d) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl methylamine 2.3. DEMECLOCYCLINE differs from CHLORTETRACYCLINE only by (a) absence of—CH3 group on carbon 6 (b) presence of—OH group on carbon 6 CH3 (c) absence of—N/ group on carbon 4 ci-13 (d) absence of OH group on carbon 3 2.4. Choose the IUPAC name for CARBAMAZEPINE. (a) 5 [3-(dimethylamino) ethyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine (b) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-carboxamide (c) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-acid chloride (d) 5 [3-dimethylamino) propyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine 2.5. RESERPINE is derived from (a) Squalene (b) Homoserine (c) Tryptophan and Tryptamine (d) Asparagine 2.6. An alkaloid from Atropa belladonna having the molecular formula C17H2303N having xD-22° when warmed with ethanolic alkaline solution is converted into (a) (-) Hyoscyamine (b) (±) Hyoscyamine (c) (+) Hyosamine (d) (±) Hyoscine 2.7. Choose the appropriate description for ERGOT. (a) Loosely arranged or in small more or less agglutinated angular masses (b) A pseudoparenchyma formed by the interwoven closely appressed compact septate hyphae. (c) The crystocarps have fallen out leaving corresponding oval perforations in the ramuli. (d) Colourless septate hyphae about one quarter the width of a cotton trichome and they become twisted together. 2.8. Characteristic bands observed in the IR spectra of alcohols result from (a) —OH and C—O stretching (b) —OH stretching (c) C—O stretching only (d) C—H bending only 2.9. Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is: (a) Sodium metabisulphite (b) Benzyl alcohol (c) Carbolic acid (d) Sorbitol 2.10. Identify the correct Non-flammable propellant. (a) Trichloro monofluromethane (b) Dichloro monofluromethane (c) Dimethyl ether (d) Difluoromethane 2.11. Elastomer used in rubber stopper formulation is: (a) Polybutadene (b) Butyl stearate (c) Titanium dioxide (d) Butylated hydroxyl toluene 2.12. Schedule D as per D and C Act is concerned with (a) list of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs (b) diseases or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure (c) requirements of factory premises (d) list of prescription drugs 2.13. Official method for the analysis of CIPROFLOXACIN is by (a) Potentiometry (b) HPLC (c) Gas chromatography (d) Non-aqueous titration 2.14. The radio frequency radiation is associated with (a) Light consisting of one colour only (b) Nuclear magnetic Resonance (c) Mass Spectrometry (d) E.S.R. 2.15. How many gms of a drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of a 1 : 2500 solution? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.4 (d) 1.25 2.16. The pyroelectric detector converts electromagnetic radiation into (a) electrical signal (b) fluorescence (c) electrons (d) visible light 2.17. The mechanism of action of DIGITALIS is (a) decreases intracellular sodium concentration (b) inhibits sodium potassium ATPase (c) activates adenyl cyclase which produces cAMP (d) decreases release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.18. The mechanism of action of DACTINOMYCIN is: (a) Inhibits topoisomerase II (b) Cross links DNA (c) Inhibition function of microtubules (d) Inhibits DNA polymerase 2.19. One of the drugs when co-administered with TERFENADINE may lead to life threatening cardiac dysrhythmia. (a) Lomefloxacin (b) Clofazimine (c) Itraconozole (d) Neomycin 2.20. Adverse effects of one of the drugs include amenorrhea, bone marrow depression, gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic distress, identify. (a) Cyclizine (b) Pyroxicam (c) Cyclophosphamide (d) Cimetidine 2.21. Varicella zoster is the causative organism for (a) small pox (b) dermatophytosis (c) herpes (d) infectious monocucleosis 2.22. One of the following is confirmed by DNA diagnosis test. (a) Hyperuricaema (b) Cystic fibrosis (c) Acute pancreatitis (d) Hyper lipidaemia 2.23. The conversion of Fructose-i, 6-biphosphate to Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is catalysed by (a) Phospho-glycerate kinase (b) Enolase (C) Aldolase (d) Triose phosphate isomerase 2.24. MORPHINE undergoes microsomal oxidation by (a) N-dealkylation (b) Aromatic hydroxylation (c) Oxidative deamination (d) 0-dealkylation 2.25. SULFASALAZINE is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme responsible is: (a) Azoreductase (b) Choline esterase (c) Glucuronyl transferase (d) Amylase SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts of a question must appear together). 3. (a) Which is the active isomer of dimethyl stilbestrol? (b) Inhibition or decreased enzyme activity can result from different types of interaction namely: (i) Non-covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (ii) Covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (iii) Mutually exclusive binding of the substtate and inhibitor. (iv) Binding on an allosteric site on the enzyme. 4. Complete the following reactions by giving appropriate structures: (a) 2, 6-dimethyl aniline is treated with chloroacetyl chloride (b) Product at (a) is treated with dimethylamine to get the final product. (c) What is the generic name of the final product? 5. Complete the following by giving appropriate structures at A, B, C, D, E. C H OH C H ONa 16O - 17OC C H ONa H N C NH HSO COOCH CHB HSO HSO Benzyl cyanide COOC2H, 6. Following modifications of the prototypes of HYDROCORTISONE represent attempts to increase glucocorticoid activity while decreasing mineralocorticoid activity: (a) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2. (b) Fluorination at C9. (c) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2 with fluorination at C9. (d) Double bond C1 and C2, fluorination at C9 and a hydroxyl at C16. (e) Double bond at C1 and C2, fluorination at C9, a methyl at C16. Give the generic names of the products formed. 7. (a) Name the part of Syzygium aromaticum which is used officially as the drug. (b) Where does the ovary situated in the above drug. (c) Which type of typical stomata is present in the above drug. (d) The G.C. analysis of the volatile oil from the above drug gives two characteristic major peaks. Name the probable constituents. 8. PAPAVERINE an alkaloid of molecular formula C2QH2104N undergoes degradation reactions. Give only the structural formulae of the products formed in the following reactions. (a) With hot concentrated Potassium permanganate (b) With cold dilute Potassium permanganate 9. Following statements are characteristic for particular terms used. Identify and name the terms: (a) In plant breeding it is a possible means of combining in a single variety the desirable characters of two or more lines, variety or species and occasionally of producing new and desirable characters not found in either parent. (b) Changes in the genetic make up of the plant. (c) Chromosomes can be grouped not in pairs, but in threes, fours or higher numbers. (d) Plants occur with one or more chromosomes extra to the somatic number (e) Plant protoplasts which can be maintained in culture and can be induced to fuse either with others of the same or different species. 83. Suggest a suitable dosage form (A) Solution (B) Suspension (C) Emulsion (D)Capsule 84. Suggest a substance to be incorporated into the formulation (A) Glycerine (B) Acacia (C) Cetrimide (D)Alcohol 85. Select one of the appropriate labeling directions (A) Keep in the refrigerator (B) No preservatives added (C) Schedule ‘G’ (D) Shake well before use Data for questions 86 and 87: Successive solvent extraction of a crude drug with petroleum ether, benzene, chloroform, ethyl alcohol and water was performed. Qualitative chemical testing of petroleum ether extract gave positive Keller-Kiliani and Salkowski’s reactions. Ethyl alcohol and aqueous extract gave positive FeCI3 reaction and acqueous extract gave foamy solution 86. What constituents are present in the petroleum ether/benzene extract? (A) Plant sterols (B) Tropane alkaloids (C) Sesquiterpenoids (D) Purines 87. What constituents are present in the ethyl alcohol and aqueous extracts? (A) Plants lipids (B) Anthraquinone glycosides (C) Alkaloids (D) Plant phenols and saponins Data for questions 88 to 90: A business executive while playing tennis complained of chest pain and ws brought to emergency room. He has history of mild hypertension and elevated blood cholesterol. ECG changes confirmed the diagnosis of myocardial infraction. The decision is made to open his occluded artery by using thrombolytic agent and also use aspirin later. 88. The thrombolytic agent used is (A) heparin (B) warfarin (C) anistreplase (D)vit. K 89. Mechanism of action of aspirin is (A) inhibit vitamin K absorption (B) antithrombin activity (C) inhibit metabolism of heparin (D) inhibit platelet aggregation 90. Mechanism of action of antithrombic lagent is (A) conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (B) activation of clotting factors (C) inhibit platelet function (D) agonist of vitamin K 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, ifneeded. 1.1 Volatile oil from Lemon peels contains d-limonene which is (a) Phenyl propane derivative (b) Bicyclic monoterpene derivative (c) Monocyclic monoterpene derivative (d) Acyclic sesquiterpene derivative 1.2 In case of Digitalis purpurea, he cardiac activity is maximum with (a) Odoroside-H (b) Digoxin (c) Digitoxin (d) Pupurea glycoside A 1.3 Dragendorif’s reagent does not give a positive test with (a) Emetine (b) Morphine (c) Caffeine (d) Codeine 1.4 The instrument used to measure particle volume is (a) Coulter Counter (b) Microscope (c) Hempel Burette (d) Helium Densitometer 1.5 The purpose of seal coating in sugar coating process for tablets is (a) To prevent moisture penetration into the tablet core (b) To round the edges and build up the tablet weight (c) To impart the desired colour to the tablet (d) To give luster to the tablet 1.6 The phenomenon of increasing the solubility of weak electrolytes and non-polar molecules by the addition of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called (a) Complexation (b) Cosolvency (c) Solubilization (d) Hydrotrophy 1.7 HLB system is used to classify (a) Surfactants (b) Preservatives (c) Antioxidants (d) Sequestering agents 1.8 The statement “Store in a cool place” as per I.P. means (a) Store at room temperature (b) Store between 2° to 8°C (c) Store at any temperature between 8° to 25°C (d) Store at 0°C 1.9 Durability of a tablet to combined effects of shock and abrasion is evaluated by using (a) Hardness tester (b) Disintegration test apparatus (c) Friabilator (d) Screw Gauge 1.10 Ion exchange capacity of a resin is dependent on (a) The total molecular weight of the resin (b) The total number of ion active groups (c) Length of the ion exchange resin (d) Solubility of the ion exchange resin 1.11 In mass spectra, the most intense peak is the (a) Base peak (b) Metastable ion peak (c) Fragment ion peak (d) Rearrangement ion peak 1.12 Chemical shift is expressed in one of the following units (a) cm1 (b) Amperes (c) parts per million (d) mm I ml 1.13 Xenon arc lamp is the source of light in (a) Spectrofluorimeter (b) JR Spectrophotometer (c) Flame photometer (d) Calorimeter 1.14 Which of the following pairs has an interaction beneficial for routine clinical use (a) Pseudoephedrine and Aluminium hydroxide gel (b) Tetracycline and Milk of Magnesia (c) MAO inhibitors and Tyramine (d) Chloramphenicol and Tolubutamide 1.15 Measurement of which of the following two constituents of human plasma is of great value in the differential diagnosis of rheumatoid diseases (a) Rheumatoid factor and immunoglobulin G (b) Rheumatoid factor and C-reactive protein (c) HL-A antigen and C-reactive protein (d) Immunoglobulin and bradykinin 1.16 Which of the following is a valid comparison of live attenuated vaccines versus killed inactivated vaccines (a) Hypersensitivity reactions are uncommon among inactivated vaccines (b) Live attenuated vaccines are more effective in children (c) Live attenuated vaccines are not suitable for pediatric use (d) Replication of the organisms in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system thereby requiring a lower dose 1.17 An antineoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having a pteridine ring is: (a) Trimethoprim (b) Mercaptopurine (c) Methotrexate (d) Folic Acid 1.18 One of the following drugs has 1, 4-dihydropyridine structure, a tertiary amino group in the side chain and Ca channel antagonist action (a) Nitrodipine (b) Nicardinpine (c) Verapamil (d) Captopril 1.19. JUPAC name for one of the steroidal anti-inflammatory agents is 9c-Fluoro- 1 113, l6cL, l7cL,2 1-tetrahydroxy- 1,4-Pregnadiene-3,20-dione (a) Prednisolone (b) Betamethasone (c) Triamcinolone (d) Dexamethasone 1.20. CLOFAZIMINE belongs to a class of (a) Rhiminophenazines (b) Aryl piperazines (c) Phenothiazines (d) Benzyl piperazines 1.21. One of the drugs is an odd one in terms of its biological action (a) Diethyl Stilbestrol (b) Tamoxifen (c) Ethynyl Estradiol (d) Mestranol 1.22. The key intermediates for the synthesis of TIMOLOL are (a) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine (b) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (c) 3, 4-dibromo-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (d) 3-Chloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine 1.23. One of the following drugs interrupts the synthesis of thyroid hormones by preventing iodine incorporation into the tyrosyl residue of thyroglobulin (a) Levothyroxine (b) Liothyronine (c) Propyl thiouracil (d) Triiodo thyronine 1.24. Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by (a) Inhibiting transcription (b) Altering the genetic code (c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely (d) Post-translational modification 1.25 One of the following is a selective 132 stimulant (a) Caffeine (b) Salbutamol (c) Propranolol (d) Betahistine 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 Cascoriside A is an example of (a) 0-Glycoside (b) C-Glycoside (c) N- and 5- Glycoside (d) 0- and C- Glycoside 2.2. Precursor for the biosynthesis of Tropane group of alkaloids is (a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Ornithine (d) Tyrosine 2.3. The extraction of steroidal saponins on commercial scale is from (a) Dioscorea (b) Digitalis (c) Datura (d) Trigonella 2.4. Rauwolfia serpentine Benth., can be distinguished from other adulterants/substitutes of Rauwolfia spp. by (a) presence of starch grains (b) Presence of calcium oxa late crystals (c) Presence of trichomes (d) Presence of sclereids 2.5. Schedule FF contains the list of the following (a) Drugs which can be marked under generic names only (b) Drugs which are habit forming (c) Standards for ophthalmic preparation (d) Drugs which are exempt from certain provisions applicable to manufacturing 2.6. One of the following equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature (a) Stokes equation (b) Arrhenius equation (c) Yong equation (d) Michaelis-Menten equation 2.7. One of the following apparatus is used to determine the particle size by the gravity sedimentation method (a) Pyknometer (b) Ostwald viscometer (c) Andreasen apparatus (d) Friabilator 2.8. One of the following mills works on both the principles of attrition and impact (a) Cutter mill (b) Hammer mill (c) Roller mill (d) Fluid energy mill 2.9. A commonly used antioxidant for oil system is (a) Butylated hydroxyl toluene (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Sodium metabisulfite (d) Thioglycol 2.10. In Digitalis glycoside c7 position of the steroidal ring is substituted by (a) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactone ring (b) c-I3 unsaturated six membered lactone ring (c) c-I3 unsaturated six membered ring (d) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactam ring 2.11. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to Propranolol because (a) It has both c and 13 adrenergic blockade (b) It has both vasodilatory properties and 13 adrenergic blockade (c) It has a 13i selective antagonist and it does not enter the brain (d) It is a 132 selective antagonist 2.12. The major product formed by the condensation of 2-trifluoro methyl phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloropropyl-4-methyl piperazine). (a) Trifluoperidol (b) Trifluoperazine (c) Trifluopromazine (d) Trifluophenothiazine 2.13. One of the following statements is characteristic for natural estrogens (a) Aromatic ring with phenolic group and an estrange nucleus (b) Aromatic ring with an alcoholic group and a pregnane nucleus (c) Reduced ring system belonging to the class estrane (d) Reduced ring system belonging to the class pregnane 2.14. One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) (a) Somatostatin (b) Beta-endorphin (c) Leu-enkephalin (d) Dynorphin 2.15. The ultra short-acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to (a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins (b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in the brain (c) Metabolism is slow in the liver (d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility 2.16. Derivatisation is done in GC (a) To convert a less polar compound to a more polar compound (b) To make the compound non-volatile (c) To convert a polar compound to a less polar compound (d) To liquify a solid 2.17. Qualitative analysis by polarography is based on (a) Electrode potential (b) Half wave potential (c) Migration current (d) Limiting current 2.18. The stationary phase used in gel permeation chromatography is (a) Alumina (b) Charcoal (c) Squalene (d) Styrene divinyl benzyl co-polymer 2.19. A conductivity cell consists of (a) Two platinised-platinum electrodes (b) A platinum-calomel electrode system (c) A platinum-tungsten electrode system (d) A glass-calomel electrode system 2.20. A typical example of exotoxin is (a) Lipid - A (b) Cytokine (c) Tetanospasmin (d) Tuberculin 2.21. A specimen isolated from a patient suffering from septicemia was found to be a strict aerobe. Its culture vial had a characteristic grape like odour and it was susceptible to carbenicillin. Identify the organism. (a) Pseudomonas fluorescens (b) Salmonella typhi (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2.22. The pKa of lidocaine is 7.9. If the pH of the infected tissue is 8.9, the fraction of the drug in the ionized form will be (a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 90% (d) 99% 2.23. The drug regimen useful in the treatment of both intestinal and extra-intestinal symptoms of amoebiasis orally is (a) Diloxanide and lodoquinol (b) Paramomycin and Mefloquine (c) Metronidazole and Diloxanide (d) Chloroquine alone 2.24. The drug NIFEDIPINE can be synthesized from (a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine (d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine 2.25. Methyl malonyl CoA mutase which catalyzes the conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl CoA utilizes the prosthetic group derived from (a) Cyanocobalamine (b) Pyridoxine (c) Thiamine (d) Nicotinamide 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be (A) shielded (B) shifted (C) hydrogen bonded (D) deshielded 43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it should undergo (A) evaporation (B) condensation (C) nebulisation (D) precipitation 44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves (A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions (B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase (C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly (D) block thiamine transport 45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (A) requires pyridoxine supplementation (B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic (D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential 46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in (A) very low density lipoproteins (B) low density lipoproteins (C) cholesterol (D) high density lipoproteins 47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is (A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission (B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization (C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors (D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot i d 48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which contain (A) multi-layered tissues or cells (B) well defined particles which can be counted (C) oil globules (D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured 49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is (A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal schizolysigenous oil glands (B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains (C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil (D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows 50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid (A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template (B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t- RNA (C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid (D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the ribosome 51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a (A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin (B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses (C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin (D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum of horses Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D. 52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies (P) organic content of the drug (Q) mineral matter in the drug (R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc. (S) woody matters present in the drug (A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S 53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons (P) Acetaldehyde (Q) Butadiene (R) Formaldehyde (S) Benzene (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S 54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include (P) topical atropine (Q) topical pilocarpine (R) oral acetazolamide (S) oral pilocarpine (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by (P) Cascade impactor (Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method (5) JR spectrophotometry (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are (P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u m (Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule (R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction (5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group (A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q 57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are (P) slow localization in target tissue (Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information (R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information (5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are (P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins (Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables (R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite (S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight (A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S Group I Group II (Tablet Additives) (Examples) (P) Binder  (1) Acacia (Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil (R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose (5) Direct compression diluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose (A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4 (B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 (C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1 (D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 61. Group I Group II (JR Detectors ) (Composition) (P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni (Q) Pyroelectric Detector  (2) Bi-Sb (R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon (5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate (A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1 (C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2 62 Group I Group II (Alkaloid ) (Ring system) (P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline (Q) Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine (R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane (S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine (A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1 (B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2 (D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 3 63. Group I Group II (Immunoglobulins (Actions) [Ig]) (P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic (Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic (R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins (S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial (A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2 (B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3 (B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2 (D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 64 Group I Group II (Antibiotics) (Microorganism used in I.P. assay) (P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus (Q) Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis (R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae (S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus (A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4 (B)P-2Q-3R-45-1 (C)P-2Q-1R-35-4 (D)P-4Q-2R-35-1 Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each question from among the options A, B, C and D. Data for questions 66 to 68: Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical screening. (A) P (C) P Group I (Synthetic Group II estrogtenic_drugs_ (Methods of synthesis) ) (1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl (P) Ethinyl chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 + estradiol Cd4 (2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard (Q) Dienoestrol reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated with alcoholic KOH (R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent removal of water (5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide Group I Group II (Immunosuppressants (Mechanism of action) ) (P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells (Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further conversion inhibits purine metabolism (R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin (5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells 66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is (A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin (B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin (C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin (D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin 67. Microscopical character of trichomes is (A) unicellular, warty (B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells (C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells (D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells 68. The drug gives positive (A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test (C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test Data for questions 69 and 70: In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7- amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y. 69. Select the reagent P (A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde 70. The final product Y is (A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide (C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide Data for questions 70 to 73: Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite. 71. What is the reagent used for diazotization? (A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04 (C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04 72. Name the aliphatic amine used (A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine (C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine 73. Name the metabolite (A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil (C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide Data for questions 74 to 76: Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is 250 mm. 74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260 75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is (A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270 76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250 Data for questions 77 and 78: In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose absorbance is measured 77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI (A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid (C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid 78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour (A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride (B) Ninhydrin reagent (C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde (D) Phloroglucinol Data for questions 79 and 80: Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used. 79. Carbidopa is used because (A) it crosses blood brain barrier (B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase (C) it inhibits MAO type A (D) it inhibits MAO type B 80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA (A) Dementia (B) Hypertension (C) Dyskinesia (D) Excitotoxicity Data for questions 81 and 82: The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1. 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which mayoppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be(A) shielded(B) shifted(C) hydrogen bonded(D) deshielded43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because itshould undergo(A) evaporation(B) condensation(C) nebulisation(D) precipitation44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly(D) block thiamine transport45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in(A) very low density lipoproteins(B) low density lipoproteins(C) cholesterol(D) high density lipoproteins47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of newRNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eoti d48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs whichcontain(A) multi-layered tissues or cells(B) well defined particles which can be counted(C) oil globules(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidalschizolysigenous oil glands(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-RNA(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on theribosome51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum of horsesQ.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options arecorrect. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies(P) organic content of the drug(Q) mineral matter in the drug(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.(S) woody matters present in the drug(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons(P) Acetaldehyde(Q) Butadiene(R) Formaldehyde(S) Benzene(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include(P) topical atropine(Q) topical pilocarpine(R) oral acetazolamide(S) oral pilocarpine(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by(P) Cascade impactor(Q) light scatter decay(R) Karl-Fischer method(5) JR spectrophotometry(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri um(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are(P) slow localization in target tissue(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, SGroup IGroup II(Tablet Additives)(Examples)(P) Binder  (1) Acacia(Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil(R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose(5) Direct compressiondiluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3(C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-161.Group IGroup II(JR Detectors )(Composition)(P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni(Q) PyroelectricDetector  (2) Bi-Sb(R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon(5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-262Group IGroup II(Alkaloid )(Ring system)(P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline(Q)Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine(R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane(S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine(A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1(B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2(D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 363.Group IGroup II(Immunoglobulins(Actions)[Ig])(P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic(Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic(R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins(S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-264Group IGroup II(Antibiotics)(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)(P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus(Q)Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis(R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae(S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for eachquestion from among the options A, B, C and D.Data for questions 66 to 68:Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemicalscreening.(A) P(C) PGroup I(SyntheticGroup IIestrogtenic_drugs_(Methods of synthesis))(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl(P) Ethinylchloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +estradiolCd4(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard(Q) Dienoestrolreaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylatedwith alcoholic KOH(R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequentremoval of water(5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylideGroup IGroup II(Immunosuppressants(Mechanism of action))(P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells(Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on furtherconversion inhibits purine metabolism(R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin(5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin67. Microscopical character of trichomes is(A) unicellular, warty(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells68. The drug gives positive(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin testData for questions 69 and 70:In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequentlyit is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.69. Select the reagent P(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde70. The final product Y is(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxideData for questions 70 to 73:Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide toyield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with analiphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S0472. Name the aliphatic amine used(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine73. Name the metabolite(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanideData for questions 74 to 76:Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is250 mm.74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)26075. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)27076. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250Data for questions 77 and 78:In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution andsubsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammoniumsulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whoseabsorbance is measured77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride(B) Ninhydrin reagent(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde(D) PhloroglucinolData for questions 79 and 80:Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletalmuscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.79. Carbidopa is used because(A) it crosses blood brain barrier(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase(C) it inhibits MAO type A(D) it inhibits MAO type B80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA(A) Dementia(B) Hypertension(C) Dyskinesia(D) ExcitotoxicityData for questions 81 and 82:The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1. 63. (A)P-2Q-4R-1S-3 (B)P-4Q-1R-3S-2 (C)P-3Q-2R-45-1 (D)P-3Q-1R-25-4 Group I Terms Group II Explanation (P) Saturated (1) Pounds of water vapour carried by one pound of dry air under any given air set of conditions (Q) Dew point (2) The water vapour is in equilibrium with liquid water at the given conditions of temperature and pressure (R) Humid (3) The volume in cubic feet occupied by one pound dry of air and its volume accompanying water vapour (S) Humidity (4) Temperature to which a mixture of air and water vapour must be cooled in order to become saturated. 64. (A) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3 (B) P – 3 Q – 1 R – 2 S – 4 Group I Antibiotic Group II Test organism for microbiological assay IP (P) Bleomycin (1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Q) Nystatin (2) Mycobacterium smegmatis (R) Carbenicillin (3) Bacillus subtilis (S) Streptomycin (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Data for Q.66 — 80 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each question from among the options A, B, C and D. Common data for questions 66 and 67: A sample of Cinnamomum zeylanicum purchased from the market was evaluated for its authenticity. 66. It shows (A) presence of cork and cortex (B) absence of cork and cortex (C) absence of phloem fibres (D) presence of xylem parenchyma 67. Volatile oil should not be less than (A) 0.05°h (B) 0.20°h (C) 0.50°h (D) 1.00°h Common data for questions 68, 69 and 70: Chloroacetic acid and hydrazine are treated together with X to get semicarbazido acetic acid in which ring closure takes place to 1-amino hydantoin. It is subsequently treated with 2- diacetoxy methyl-5-nitrofuran to get Nitrofurantoin. 68. Reagetn ‘X’ is (A) Cuprous chlodride (B) Potassium cyanate (C) Silver nitrate (D) Mercurous chloride 69. Its IUPAC name is (A) 1-(5-nitrofurfuryl) hydantoin (B) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidene hydroxyl)hydantoin (C) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidine amino) hydantoin (D) 1-(5-aminfurfurylidine nitro) dydantoin 70. Its gastrointestinal tolerance can be improved without interfering with oral absorption by preparing a (A) solid dispersion (B) prodrug (C) large crystalline form (Macrodantin) (D) suspension Common data for questions 71 and 72: A compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H4O exhibits a strong absorption band at 1730 cm1 in IR spectrum. On reduction, it is converted into ‘Y’ which shows a strong band at 3640cm* 71. Assign the band in X to (A) CH3 (B) C = C (C) C = 0 (D)CH2C=O 72. The strong band in Y is due to (A) -C-C (B) -C-O-C- (C) =CH2 (D)-OH Common data for questions 73, 74 and 75: In the management of asthma, the drugs used are Salmeterol, Zafirlukast, Budesonide, Nedocromil sodium and Bambuterol. 73. Zafirlukast acts as (A) 2 adrenoceptor agonist (B) Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagnoist (C) uscarinic receptor antagonist (D) Antihistamine 74. A prodrug of terbutaline is (A) Zafirlukast (B) Salmeterol (C) Bambuterol (D) Nedocromil sodium 75. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time (A) Budesonide (B) Zafirlukast (C) Salmeterol (D)Bambuterol Common data for questions 76, 77 and 78: In a pharmaceutical industry, batch filtration of liquids where the proportion of solids to liquids is high is to be carried out. The complete recovery of solids is required. After filtration, the filtrate, which is corrosive, gives a crystalline product on evaporation. The liquid tends to deposit scales or crystals on the heating surface during evaporation. 76. A suitable filtration equipment is (A) Plate and frame filter press (B) Leaf filters (C) Meta filters (D) Membrane filters 77. The filter aid used in the above filtration is (A) Sand (B) Nylon fibre cloth (C) Activated carbon (D) Filter paper 78. A suitable evaporator is (A) falling film evaporator (B) forced circulation evaporator (C) vertical evaporator (D) horizontal tube evaporator Common data for questions 79 and 80: Isoprenoid biosynthesis is involved in the production of many biologically important compounds such as Cholesterol, Steriod Hormones, Vitamin K, Vitamin E and bile acids. 79. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the patway, catalyzes (A) side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones (B) the reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosyntheis. (C) the reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D. (D) steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids. 80. The inhibition of HMG-C0A teductase is a strategy used in the treatment of (A) Familia hyperchlesterolemia (B) Vitamin K deficiency (C) Inflammation in the joints (D) Hepatic parenchymal disease Linked Answer Questions: Q.81a to Q85b Carry Two Marks Each. Statement for Linked Answer Questions 81a to 81b: 81. (A) The selective COX-2 inhibitor is (A) Ketorolac (B) Rofecoxib (C) Indomethacin (D)Naproxen (B) The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking (A) Antiallergic drugs (B) Anxiolytic drugs (C) Antihypertensive drugs (D) Oral antidiabetic agents Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a to 82b: A drug solution has an initial potency of 300 mg/lOml. When stored in a refrigerator for 30 days, its potency was found to be 100 mg/10m1. 82. (A) The rate constant, assuming that the drug solution undergoes first order kinetics, is: (A) 0.0366 day1 (B) 0.0074 day1 (C) 0.0174 day1 (D)0.0506 day1 (B) Half-life of the drug solution, under these conditions is: (A) 9.4 days (B) 19 days (C) 47 days (D)4.7 days Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a to 83b: Ginger is a widely used herbal drug, containing many chemical constituents. 83. (A) The pungent principle present in it, is (A) Zingiberol (B) Zingiberene (C) Gingerol (D)Cineole (B) It’s decomposition product, on boiling with 2°h KOH is (A) Zingiberone (B) Shogaol (C) Gingediol (D) Gingediol acetate Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a to 84b: 2, 6-dimethyl phenol and chloroacetone on reaction gives ‘X’, which on treatment with hydroxylamine and hydrochloric acid gives an intermediate product. This on further treatment with Raney nickel in acid, gives the final product. 84. (A) The product ‘X’ is: (A) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-propanone (B) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-butanone (C) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-isopropanone (D) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-pentanone (B) The final product is (A) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)isopropylamine (B) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)ethylamine (C) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)butylamien (D) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)pentylamine Statement for Linked Answer Questions 85a to 85b: An organic compound ‘X’ has an absorption maxima at 217 nm. Its Emax is 16,000. the absorbance is 0.64 when the cell length is 1 cm. 85. (A) The molar concentration of ‘X’ is (A) 5x105 (B) 4x105 (C) 4x104 (D)5x102 (B) If the molecular weight is 56.06, its concentration in gms/ml is: (A) 2.5x10 6 (B) 0.25x10 6 (C) 5x10 (D) 2.24x10 6 1. The structural feature common fro propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, metopropol in the side chain is (A) Isopropylamino propan-2-ol (B) Dimethylamino propan-2-ol (C) Diethylamino propan-2-ol (D) Dibutylamino propan-2-ol 2. When N-methyl group of morphine is replaced with an allyl group, the compound formed is (A) Naloxone-morphine antagonist (B) Natrexone-morphine agonist (C) Nalorphine-morphine antagonist (D) Nalbuphine-morphine agonist/antagonist 3. Nitrazepam can be synthesized from (A) 2-Bromo-5-amino benzophenone (B) 2-Nitro-2-chloro acetophenone (C) 2-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexanone (D) 2-Amino-5-nitro benzophenone 4. Clavulanic acid has a beta lactam king fused to (A) Thienyl system (B) Thiadiazole system (C) Thiazolidine system (D) Oxazolidine system 5. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is (A) Sulfinpyrazone (B) Aspirin (C) Ticlopidine (D) Acetaminophen 6. Wild cherry bark contains prunasin which is a (A) Phenolic glycoside (B) Isothiocyanate glycoside (C) Coumarin glycoside (D) Cyanogenetic glycoside 7. Ephedra sinica and Ephedra equisetina can be distinguished by type of (A) Branching (B) Stomata (C) Scaly leaves (D)Alkaloids 8. Microprapagation of the plants is carried out through (A) Cross fertilization (B) Seed germination (C) Plant tissue culture (D) Grafting 9. Acontitine belongs to the group of (A) Steroidal alkaloids (B) Terpenoidal alkaloids (C) Indole alkaloids (D) Quinoline alkaloids 10. Crude fiber value of a drug is a measure of (A) Soft tissue matter (B) Woody matter (C) Mineral matter (D) Organic matter 11. One of the units used for expressing pressure is ‘torr’ and it is equal to (A) cm of Hg (B) mm of Hg (C) psi (D)gauss 12. Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of (A) Fragment ion (B) Metastable ion (C) Molecular ion (D) Rearrangement ion 13. Nuclear magnetic moment is NOT shown by (A) 13C (B) 16Q (C) 1H (D) 15N 14. Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance (A) Molecular weight (B) Detectability (C) Reversibility (D) Reproducibility 15. A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a solution of (A) NaCI (B) Hg2CI2 (C) KCI (D) Na2SO4 16. Metoclopramide is generally used for (A) Prophylaxis of vomiting (B) Preventing motion sickness (C) Treating irritable bowel syndrome (D) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency 18. Identify the non-pathogenic organism (A) Mycobacterium bovis (B) Mycobacterium smegmatis (C) Mycobacterium avium (D) Mycobacterium intracellulare 19. Bioassays are carried out to (A) Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug (B) Avoid clinical trails for new drugs (C) Detect the impurity in a given drug (D) Screen fro pharmacognetic influences of new drugs. 20. A direct way of studying idiosyncratic reactions to a given drug is by (A) changing the route of drug administration (B) changing the assay method (C) pharmacogenomics (D) structure activity relationship studies of a family of compounds 21. An example of haemopoietic growth factor is (A) platelet derived growth factor (B) epidermal growth factor (C) iron dextran (D) erythropoietin 22. Safranin is used as a reagent to detect (A) Gram-negative bacteria (B) Gram-positive bacteria (C) Acid fast bacteria (D) Myxozoa 23. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with (A) Oral anticoagulants (B) Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents (C) Hydantoin anticonvulsants (D) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors 24. Simvastatin belongs to (A) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents (B) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents (C) Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents (D) Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents 25. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with (A) Cytarabine (B) Acyclovir (C) Zidovudine (D)Amantadine 26. The measure of cohesive strength of the cross linking that occurs between gelatin molecules and is proportional to the molecular weight of gelatin is called (A) Bloom strength (B) Viscosity (C) Surface tension (D) Partition coefficient 27. A water soluble substance used as coating material in microencapsulation process is: (A) Polyethylene (B) Silicone (C) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose (D) Paraffin 28. One of the following is used as a solubilizing agent to solubilize testosterone in pharmaceutical liquid dosage forms. (A) Sucrose monoesters (B) Lanolin esters (C) Lanolin ethers (D) Tweens 29. One of the following is used as a pH dependent controlled release excipient. (A) Carnauba wax (B) Hydroxy proply methyl cellulose phthalate (C) Methyl cellulose (D) Glyceryl monostearate 30. The Schedule in D & C act that deals with the standards for disinfectant fluids is: (A) Schedule B (B) Schedule F (C) Schedule 0 (D)Schedule M Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each. 31. The carboxyl group of aspirin is esterified with N-acetyl-p-aminophenol to get (A) 3-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate (B) 4-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate (C) O-(2-hydroxy benzoyl) salicylic acid (D) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate 32. JUPAC system of nomenclature for diclophenac sodium (BP) is (A) Sodium 2-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate (B) Sodium 3-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate (C) Sodium 2-[(2-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate (D) Sodium 2-[(6-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate 33. 1-(2-Aminoethyl) perdydroazocine on treatment with S-methyl isothiourea gives rise to an adrenergic neuron blocking agent (A) Bethanidine (B) Mecamylamine (C) Guanadrel (D)Gauenthidine 34. Quercetin is (A) 5, 7, 3-Trihydroxy flavone (B) 5, 7, 3, 4-Tetradydroxy flavone (C) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonol (D) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonone 35. Meconic acid is a chemical marker for the genus (A) Piper (B) Pilocarpus (C) Prunus (D)Papaver 36. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is (A) Demecolcine (B) Paclitaxel (C) Vinblastin (D)Brevifolicin 37. The absorption maximum for polar compounds is usually shifted with change in polarity of the solvents due to (A) Hydrogen bonding (B) Chemical reaction (C) Ionization of the compounds (D) Change in the chromophone 38. A titration in which potential applied across two electrodes is maintained at a constant value and the current is measured and plotted against volume of titrant is (A) Potentiometric titration (B) Amperometric titration (C) Displacement titration (D) Conductometric titration 39. The parameter in the elution curve that is proportional to the concentration of a compound in gas chromatographic effluent is the (A) Number of peaks (B) Width of the peak (C) Area under the peak (D) Shape of the peak 40. A drug solution has a half life of 21 days. Assuming that the drug undergoes first order kinetics, how long will it take for the potency to drop to 9O/c of the initial potency? (A) 3.2 days (B) 9.6 days (C) 16 days (D)6.4 days 41. An amphoteric surfactant used in pharmaceutical disperse system is: (A) Bile salts (B) Lecithin (C) Sorbitan monolaurate (D) Sorbitan monostearate 42. An abrasive used in dentifrices is (A) Dicalcium phosphate (B) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose (C) Sodium lauryl sulfate (D) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate 43. An electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute molecules by creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied electrical current or voltage is called (A) Electrophoresis (B) lontophoresis (C) Osmosis (D)Implants 44. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However, recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance. She has occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those mentioned below: (A) Paracetamol (B) Celecoxib (C) Piroxicam (D)Naproxen 45. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by (A) Plasmin (B) Renin (C) Urokinase (D)Ptylin 46. Which one of the these best describes a process carried out to render a drug pharmacokinetically more acceptable? (A) Enteric coating if diclofenac. (B) Co-administration of aspirin with antacids. (C) Use of colloidal suspensions or liposomes for administering amphotericin-B. (D) Synthesis of an analogue to obtain high receptor specificity. 47. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin (A) Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly. (B) Has a methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than erythromycin. (C) Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract. (D) Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form. 48. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true? (A) Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier. (B) Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine. (C) Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine. (D) Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine receptors. 49. Autoimmunity refers to (A) an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen. (B) failure to distinguish between self and non-self (C) an automatic segregation of T and B cells. (D) failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells. 50. Which of these is true about the discovery of HB antigen in the blood of people infected with Hepatitis-B? (A) It provided a basis for vaccine design. (B) It indicated that specific vaccines cannot be designed for Hepatitis-B. (C) It has not been of much significance. (D) It indicated that Hepatitis-B is a viral disease 51. Which drug molecule DOES NOT have phenylethyl amine moiety? (A) Amphetamine (B) Glyburide (C) Pheniramine (D)Mescaline Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are correct. Choose the correèt combination among A, B, C and D. 52. There are two methods by which the duration of action of insulin may be prolonged. (P) Binding with resins. (Q) Esterification of amio acid residues. (R) Forming of complex of insulin with protein. (5) Modification of particle size. (A) Q, R (B) R, S (C) P.S (D)P, R 53. The attributes of cycloserine are (P) No tautomerism shown. (Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form. (R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH. (S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH. (A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D)P, R 54. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological properties. (P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation. (Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened. (R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound. (S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound. (A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D)Q, R 55. The identification of propellants in pharamaceutical aerosols is carried out by (P) Gas-chromatography (Q) Tag-open cup apparatus (R) Pyknometer (S) JR Spectrophotometer (A) P, Q (B) P, S (C) Q, R (D)R, S 56. Schedule ‘H’ and Schedule ‘5’ as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deal with the following. (P) Prescription drugs which are required to be sold by retail only on prescription of R.M.P. (Q) Standards for cosmetics (R) Biological and special products (5) List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics and soaps (A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)R, S 57. Myristica fragrans Houtt has two of the following characteristics. (P) An indeciduous tree, which produces drupaceous, pale yellow fruits. (Q) Each fruit has several round seeds with smooth surface and lignaceous tegument, and the orange red fleshy aril — the mace, is present inside the seed. (R) A deciduous tall tree, which produces lignaceous capsules. (S) Each fruit has a unique avoid seed, with lignified tegument, surrounded by orange red laciniate fleshly aril — the mace. (A) Q, R (B) P, R (C) P.S (D)Q, S 58. Jn size exclusion chromatography the stationary phases used are: (P) Alumina (Q) Dextran (R) Agarose (S)Styrene (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D)P, R Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct Group II Group I Intermediates from which Group I drugs are Synthetic Drugs synthesized (P) Buclizin (1) Aziridin and thiophosphoryl chloride (Q) C h 10 ro ph en es (2) 4-Chlorophenol in (R) Thiotepa (3) 4-Chlorobenzhydryl chloride (S) Alprazolam (4) 2-Amino-5-Chloro benzophenone Codes: (A) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S-4 (B) P - 4 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 3 (C) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S-1 (D) P - 1 Q - 2 R - 4 S - 3 60 Group I Group II Cardiac Agents Mechanism of action (P) Digitoxin (1) Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking calcium channels (Q) (2) Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx Dobutamine through beta receptor blockade (R) Sotalol (3) Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimulation of adenylate cyclase. (4) Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase (S) Nicardipine pump. Codes: (A)P-4Q-3R-2S-1 (B)P-3Q-4R-1S-2 (C)P-4Q-2R-3S-1 (D)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 61. Group I Group II Technique employed Source of Radiation (P) Visible spectrophotometry (1) Rf Source transmitter (Q) JR spectrophotometry (2) Xenon lamp (R) NMR spectrophotometry (3) Tungsten lamp (S) Fluorescence (4) Nernst glower spectrophotometry Codes: (A) P - 2 Q - 4 R-3 S-1 (B) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 4 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R- 1 S-2 (D) P - 4 Q - 1 R - 3 S - 2 1. In a comparative chemical study of Morphine, Codeine and Thebaine, the following observations are noted. Give your inferences (a) Morphine forms dibenzoate, Codeine forms a monobenzoate (b) Morphine gives a positive ferric chloride test and others do not (c) Codeine gives one molecule of CH3I when heated with HI where as thebaine gives two molecules CH3I (d) Morphine on treatment with halogenoacid gives a monohalogen derivative (e) All the three alkaloids combine with CH3I to form methiiodide 5. With respect to Ceylon Cinnamon, give (a) Botanical source with family (b) Main active constituent with its chemical nature (c) Chemical structure of the main active constituent 6. Assign the bands in the JR spectrum for appropriate groups given below: >C=O, aromatic compounds, -OH, >C=C<, -CC (a 3700 — 3500 cm1 (b) 1740 — 1720 cm1 (c) 1667 — 1640 cm1 (d) 2260 — 2100 cm1 (e) 900 — 675 cm1 7. In the microbiological assay of ERYTHROMYCJN, I.P. (a) Name the organism used (b) Name the solvent used (c) What is the buffer used? (d) In what pH is the experiment done? (e) What is the incubation temperature? 8. (a) 0.25 g of a compound C10H15N0.HCIwas titrated with 0.1 M HCIO4. It consumed 12.5 ml of the titrant. (i) What is the stoichiometric factor used for the calculation of percentage purity? (ii) Calculate the percentage purity (b) Write the formula used and calculate the absorbance of a solution of a compound having and Emax 6200, when 0.05 mM solution is measured in a 1 cm cell. 9. (a) Complete the following reactions giving appropriate structures. 0-toluidine is treated with 2-Bromo propionyl bromide, the resulting product is treated with propylamien to get the drug. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug belong? 10. 2-amino-4, 5-dimethoxy benzoic acid NaOCN ) A PCI3 /PCI5 B NH3 C 1 (2 Furoyl piperazine) ) D (a) Write the products at A, B, C, D. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug D belong? 11. 2H — 1,2,4 — Benzothiadiazine — 7 — sulfonamide — 6 — chloro-1, 1-dioxide, can be modified to change biological properties. Comment on the effect of the following modifications to the structure. (a) Saturation of -3-4-double bond (b) Substitution of 6-chloro by —CF3 (c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5 (d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2 (e) Saturation of 3, 4-double bond, insertion of a benzyl group at position 3, and substitution of 6-Cl by —CF3 12. Draw the structures of the following (a) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-pyridyl)-propyl]-amine (b) 4-amino-N-(2-diethyl-aminoethyl) benzamide (c) N1-(5-methyl iso oxazol-3-yl)-u1Ifanilamide (d) 2-(2-fluoro biphenyl-4-yl) propionic acid (e) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-l-yl-l-(4-tolyl)prop-l-enyl)pyridine 13. Draw the structures of the major first phase metabolic products of the following drugs by the given route. (a) Phenobaritone-by aromatic hydroxylation (b) Procaine — by hydrolysis (c) Imipramine — by N-mono dealkylation (d) Nor-epinephrine- by oxidative deamination (e) 6-merceptopurine — by oxidation 14. Name the enzymes that catalyze the following reactions (a) Acetoacetyl CoA - Acetyl CoA (b) Oxaloacetate - Malate (c) Riboflavin - Flavin mononucleotide (d) HMG — CoA - Mevalonate (e) Glutamate - GABA 15. For the following drugs name the type of interaction and the molecule involved in exerting their pharmacological response (a) Captopril (b) Diltiazem (c) Diazepam (d) Rifampicin (e) Haloperidol 16. Name five components of an aerosol package 17. A drug solution has an initial potency of 125 mg I 5 ml. After storing for 30 days in a refrigerator, the potency is found to be 100 mg I 5 ml. what is the half life of the drug solution under these conditions? The drug undergoes first order kinetics. Give the equations and steps involved. 18. Name the five forces that can act between solid particles in Tablet manufacture. 19. (a) Give four reasons for pH adjustment in parenteral preparations (b) In which year was the Pharmacy Council of India first constituted by the Central Government? 20. In five different patients, deficiency of vitamins were diagnosed. The diagnosis were (a) Scurvy (b) Wet or dry Beriberi (c) Inflamed tongue, glossitis (d) Pernicious anemia (e) Osteomalacia in adults 21. (a) Define Schick Test Toxin, IP. (b) What is it’s dose? (c) What is its’s pH? (d) Give it’s storage conditions (e) Define Schick control 22. The antibiotics VANCOMYCIN, CEFALEXIN, FUSIDIC ACID, ERYTHROMYCIN and BICYCLOMYCIN belong to one of the following classes. Include them in the appropriate class Cyclic dipeptide, 3-lactam, Macrolide, Tetracyclic triterpene, Glycopeptide. 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 1.1 Starting material used for the synthesis of L-Thyroxine is: (a) 2 amino-5-chloro acetophenone (b) phenyl alanine (c) 2 amino-5-chloro benzophenone (d) L-tyrosine 1.2 One of the following antianxiety agent is an azaspirodecanedione derivative. (a) Lorazepam (b) Cycloheptadiene (c) Meprobamate (d) Buspirone 1.3 Include the following drug under proper classification. NIFEDIPINE. (a) Quinoline derivative (b) Aryl piperidines (c) Iso Quinoline derivative (d) Pyridine derivative 1.4 Acetazolamide can be synthesized from one of the following intermediates. (a) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3-thiazole (b) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-thiadiazole (c) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 2, 3-thiadazole (d) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-tetrazole 1.5 Choose the correct trichomes of Digitalis purpurea. (a) Numerous covering trichomes and a few glandular trichomes (b) Few covering trichomes (c) Few glandular trichomes and few covering trichomes (d) Few glandular trichomes 1.6 PANAXADIOL is a constituent of (a) Ginger (b) Jatamanst (c) Ginseng (d) Pepper 1.7 The plant harmone which shows specific effect on the cell division is: (a) Auxins (b) Abscisic Acid (c) Cytokin ins (d) Ethylene 1.8 One of the following condition is maintained in programmed temperature gas chromatography. (a) Temperature of the whole column is raised during analysis (b) Temperature at the sample injection system is raised (c) Temperature at the detector is gradually raised (d) Temperature at the recorder alone is raised 1.9 A BOLOMETER consists of (a) two metals welded together (b) a thin blackened platinum strip in an evacuated vessel (c) deuterated triglycine sulphate (d) tungsten wire 1.10 Choose the correct excipient for enhancing solubility in Tablet manufacture. (a) PEG (b) Microcrystalline cellulose (c) Talc (d) Lactose 1.11 Two or more ions present together can be determined successfully by polarograph even if their half wave potentials overlap or interfere by (a) titration (b) complexation (c) filtration (d) heating 1.12 One of the following is a selective. SEROTONIN reuptake inhibitor (a) Desipramine (b) Fluoxetine (c) Buspropion (d) Maprotiline 1.13 PLasmodial resistance of CHLOROQUINE is due to (a) induction of inactivating enzymes (b) change in receptor structure (c) increase in the activity of DNA repair mechanism (d) decreased carrier mediated drug transport 1.14 One of the following actions of opioid analgesics is medicated via kappa receptors (a) Cerebral vascular dilation (b) Euphoria (c) Spinal analgesia (d) Physical dependence 1.15 One of the following drugs has activity against Herpes simplex virus type I and is used topically Systematic administration of the same results in bone marrow depression hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity. (a) Acyclovir (b) Amantadine (c) Vadarabine (d) Idoxuridine 1.16 A woman has to be treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found hypersensitive to Penicillin V. The cultures now reveal a strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which one would be the best choice for the patient? (a) Amoxicillin (b) Erythromycin (c) Cefaclor (d) Cyclacillin 1.17 The units of measurement for conductance is: (a) Ohms (b) Amperes (c) Mhos (d) Milli volts 1.18 The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or plastic like, by the addition of (a) Sorbitol (b) Povidone (c) PEG (d) HPMC 1.19. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a (a) controlled released product (b) hard gelatin capsule (c) tablet (d) solution 1.20. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on (a) total body clearance of the drug (b) percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins (c) fraction of drug excreted unchanged in urine (d) apparent volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma 1.21. BROWNE’s tubes are the mot commonly used chemical indicator for (a) Ethylene oxide sterilization (b) Radiation sterilization (c) Heat process sterilization (d) Filtration sterilization 1.22. A specimen obtained from a patient’s cerebrospinal fluid, cultured in specialized media for about five weeks showed the presence of bent rods and tested positive with Ziehi-Neelsen reagent. Identify the organism. (a) Niesseria meningitidis (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (c) Bacteroides fragilis (d) Leptospira interrogans 1.23. Staphylococcus aureus is used for the I.P. assay of (a) Doxycycline (b) Bleomycin (c) Kanamycin (d) Carbenicillin 1.24. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members (a) Six (b) Nine (c) Five (d) Seven 1.25 Drug combination WARFARIN/VITAMIN-K results in a specific interaction. Identify. (a) Antagonistic (b) Increased sedation (c) No known interaction (d) Harmful only in the presence of oxidizing agent 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 In the glucuronidation reaction of OXAZEPAM — the functional group responsible is: (a) —OH (b) —COOH (c) —SH (d)—NH2 2.2. Benzhydryl bromide when treated with 2-dimethyl amino ethanol in presence of K2C03 gives one of the following. (a) 2-diphenyl ethoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (b) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl ethylamine (c) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (d) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl methylamine 2.3. DEMECLOCYCLINE differs from CHLORTETRACYCLINE only by (a) absence of—CH3 group on carbon 6 (b) presence of—OH group on carbon 6 CH3 (c) absence of—N/ group on carbon 4 ci-13 (d) absence of OH group on carbon 3 2.4. Choose the IUPAC name for CARBAMAZEPINE. (a) 5 [3-(dimethylamino) ethyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine (b) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-carboxamide (c) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-acid chloride (d) 5 [3-dimethylamino) propyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine 2.5. RESERPINE is derived from (a) Squalene (b) Homoserine (c) Tryptophan and Tryptamine (d) Asparagine 2.6. An alkaloid from Atropa belladonna having the molecular formula C17H2303N having xD-22° when warmed with ethanolic alkaline solution is converted into (a) (-) Hyoscyamine (b) (±) Hyoscyamine (c) (+) Hyosamine (d) (±) Hyoscine 2.7. Choose the appropriate description for ERGOT. (a) Loosely arranged or in small more or less agglutinated angular masses (b) A pseudoparenchyma formed by the interwoven closely appressed compact septate hyphae. (c) The crystocarps have fallen out leaving corresponding oval perforations in the ramuli. (d) Colourless septate hyphae about one quarter the width of a cotton trichome and they become twisted together. 2.8. Characteristic bands observed in the IR spectra of alcohols result from (a) —OH and C—O stretching (b) —OH stretching (c) C—O stretching only (d) C—H bending only 2.9. Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is: (a) Sodium metabisulphite (b) Benzyl alcohol (c) Carbolic acid (d) Sorbitol 2.10. Identify the correct Non-flammable propellant. (a) Trichloro monofluromethane (b) Dichloro monofluromethane (c) Dimethyl ether (d) Difluoromethane 2.11. Elastomer used in rubber stopper formulation is: (a) Polybutadene (b) Butyl stearate (c) Titanium dioxide (d) Butylated hydroxyl toluene 2.12. Schedule D as per D and C Act is concerned with (a) list of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs (b) diseases or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure (c) requirements of factory premises (d) list of prescription drugs 2.13. Official method for the analysis of CIPROFLOXACIN is by (a) Potentiometry (b) HPLC (c) Gas chromatography (d) Non-aqueous titration 2.14. The radio frequency radiation is associated with (a) Light consisting of one colour only (b) Nuclear magnetic Resonance (c) Mass Spectrometry (d) E.S.R. 2.15. How many gms of a drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of a 1 : 2500 solution? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.4 (d) 1.25 2.16. The pyroelectric detector converts electromagnetic radiation into (a) electrical signal (b) fluorescence (c) electrons (d) visible light 2.17. The mechanism of action of DIGITALIS is (a) decreases intracellular sodium concentration (b) inhibits sodium potassium ATPase (c) activates adenyl cyclase which produces cAMP (d) decreases release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.18. The mechanism of action of DACTINOMYCIN is: (a) Inhibits topoisomerase II (b) Cross links DNA (c) Inhibition function of microtubules (d) Inhibits DNA polymerase 2.19. One of the drugs when co-administered with TERFENADINE may lead to life threatening cardiac dysrhythmia. (a) Lomefloxacin (b) Clofazimine (c) Itraconozole (d) Neomycin 2.20. Adverse effects of one of the drugs include amenorrhea, bone marrow depression, gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic distress, identify. (a) Cyclizine (b) Pyroxicam (c) Cyclophosphamide (d) Cimetidine 2.21. Varicella zoster is the causative organism for (a) small pox (b) dermatophytosis (c) herpes (d) infectious monocucleosis 2.22. One of the following is confirmed by DNA diagnosis test. (a) Hyperuricaema (b) Cystic fibrosis (c) Acute pancreatitis (d) Hyper lipidaemia 2.23. The conversion of Fructose-i, 6-biphosphate to Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is catalysed by (a) Phospho-glycerate kinase (b) Enolase (C) Aldolase (d) Triose phosphate isomerase 2.24. MORPHINE undergoes microsomal oxidation by (a) N-dealkylation (b) Aromatic hydroxylation (c) Oxidative deamination (d) 0-dealkylation 2.25. SULFASALAZINE is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme responsible is: (a) Azoreductase (b) Choline esterase (c) Glucuronyl transferase (d) Amylase SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts of a question must appear together). 3. (a) Which is the active isomer of dimethyl stilbestrol? (b) Inhibition or decreased enzyme activity can result from different types of interaction namely: (i) Non-covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (ii) Covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (iii) Mutually exclusive binding of the substtate and inhibitor. (iv) Binding on an allosteric site on the enzyme. 4. Complete the following reactions by giving appropriate structures: (a) 2, 6-dimethyl aniline is treated with chloroacetyl chloride (b) Product at (a) is treated with dimethylamine to get the final product. (c) What is the generic name of the final product? 5. Complete the following by giving appropriate structures at A, B, C, D, E. C H OH C H ONa 16O - 17OC C H ONa H N C NH HSO COOCH CHB HSO HSO Benzyl cyanide COOC2H, 6. Following modifications of the prototypes of HYDROCORTISONE represent attempts to increase glucocorticoid activity while decreasing mineralocorticoid activity: (a) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2. (b) Fluorination at C9. (c) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2 with fluorination at C9. (d) Double bond C1 and C2, fluorination at C9 and a hydroxyl at C16. (e) Double bond at C1 and C2, fluorination at C9, a methyl at C16. Give the generic names of the products formed. 7. (a) Name the part of Syzygium aromaticum which is used officially as the drug. (b) Where does the ovary situated in the above drug. (c) Which type of typical stomata is present in the above drug. (d) The G.C. analysis of the volatile oil from the above drug gives two characteristic major peaks. Name the probable constituents. 8. PAPAVERINE an alkaloid of molecular formula C2QH2104N undergoes degradation reactions. Give only the structural formulae of the products formed in the following reactions. (a) With hot concentrated Potassium permanganate (b) With cold dilute Potassium permanganate 9. Following statements are characteristic for particular terms used. Identify and name the terms: (a) In plant breeding it is a possible means of combining in a single variety the desirable characters of two or more lines, variety or species and occasionally of producing new and desirable characters not found in either parent. (b) Changes in the genetic make up of the plant. (c) Chromosomes can be grouped not in pairs, but in threes, fours or higher numbers. (d) Plants occur with one or more chromosomes extra to the somatic number (e) Plant protoplasts which can be maintained in culture and can be induced to fuse either with others of the same or different species. 83. Suggest a suitable dosage form (A) Solution (B) Suspension (C) Emulsion (D)Capsule 84. Suggest a substance to be incorporated into the formulation (A) Glycerine (B) Acacia (C) Cetrimide (D)Alcohol 85. Select one of the appropriate labeling directions (A) Keep in the refrigerator (B) No preservatives added (C) Schedule ‘G’ (D) Shake well before use Data for questions 86 and 87: Successive solvent extraction of a crude drug with petroleum ether, benzene, chloroform, ethyl alcohol and water was performed. Qualitative chemical testing of petroleum ether extract gave positive Keller-Kiliani and Salkowski’s reactions. Ethyl alcohol and aqueous extract gave positive FeCI3 reaction and acqueous extract gave foamy solution 86. What constituents are present in the petroleum ether/benzene extract? (A) Plant sterols (B) Tropane alkaloids (C) Sesquiterpenoids (D) Purines 87. What constituents are present in the ethyl alcohol and aqueous extracts? (A) Plants lipids (B) Anthraquinone glycosides (C) Alkaloids (D) Plant phenols and saponins Data for questions 88 to 90: A business executive while playing tennis complained of chest pain and ws brought to emergency room. He has history of mild hypertension and elevated blood cholesterol. ECG changes confirmed the diagnosis of myocardial infraction. The decision is made to open his occluded artery by using thrombolytic agent and also use aspirin later. 88. The thrombolytic agent used is (A) heparin (B) warfarin (C) anistreplase (D)vit. K 89. Mechanism of action of aspirin is (A) inhibit vitamin K absorption (B) antithrombin activity (C) inhibit metabolism of heparin (D) inhibit platelet aggregation 90. Mechanism of action of antithrombic lagent is (A) conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (B) activation of clotting factors (C) inhibit platelet function (D) agonist of vitamin K 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, ifneeded. 1.1 Volatile oil from Lemon peels contains d-limonene which is (a) Phenyl propane derivative (b) Bicyclic monoterpene derivative (c) Monocyclic monoterpene derivative (d) Acyclic sesquiterpene derivative 1.2 In case of Digitalis purpurea, he cardiac activity is maximum with (a) Odoroside-H (b) Digoxin (c) Digitoxin (d) Pupurea glycoside A 1.3 Dragendorif’s reagent does not give a positive test with (a) Emetine (b) Morphine (c) Caffeine (d) Codeine 1.4 The instrument used to measure particle volume is (a) Coulter Counter (b) Microscope (c) Hempel Burette (d) Helium Densitometer 1.5 The purpose of seal coating in sugar coating process for tablets is (a) To prevent moisture penetration into the tablet core (b) To round the edges and build up the tablet weight (c) To impart the desired colour to the tablet (d) To give luster to the tablet 1.6 The phenomenon of increasing the solubility of weak electrolytes and non-polar molecules by the addition of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called (a) Complexation (b) Cosolvency (c) Solubilization (d) Hydrotrophy 1.7 HLB system is used to classify (a) Surfactants (b) Preservatives (c) Antioxidants (d) Sequestering agents 1.8 The statement “Store in a cool place” as per I.P. means (a) Store at room temperature (b) Store between 2° to 8°C (c) Store at any temperature between 8° to 25°C (d) Store at 0°C 1.9 Durability of a tablet to combined effects of shock and abrasion is evaluated by using (a) Hardness tester (b) Disintegration test apparatus (c) Friabilator (d) Screw Gauge 1.10 Ion exchange capacity of a resin is dependent on (a) The total molecular weight of the resin (b) The total number of ion active groups (c) Length of the ion exchange resin (d) Solubility of the ion exchange resin 1.11 In mass spectra, the most intense peak is the (a) Base peak (b) Metastable ion peak (c) Fragment ion peak (d) Rearrangement ion peak 1.12 Chemical shift is expressed in one of the following units (a) cm1 (b) Amperes (c) parts per million (d) mm I ml 1.13 Xenon arc lamp is the source of light in (a) Spectrofluorimeter (b) JR Spectrophotometer (c) Flame photometer (d) Calorimeter 1.14 Which of the following pairs has an interaction beneficial for routine clinical use (a) Pseudoephedrine and Aluminium hydroxide gel (b) Tetracycline and Milk of Magnesia (c) MAO inhibitors and Tyramine (d) Chloramphenicol and Tolubutamide 1.15 Measurement of which of the following two constituents of human plasma is of great value in the differential diagnosis of rheumatoid diseases (a) Rheumatoid factor and immunoglobulin G (b) Rheumatoid factor and C-reactive protein (c) HL-A antigen and C-reactive protein (d) Immunoglobulin and bradykinin 1.16 Which of the following is a valid comparison of live attenuated vaccines versus killed inactivated vaccines (a) Hypersensitivity reactions are uncommon among inactivated vaccines (b) Live attenuated vaccines are more effective in children (c) Live attenuated vaccines are not suitable for pediatric use (d) Replication of the organisms in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system thereby requiring a lower dose 1.17 An antineoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having a pteridine ring is: (a) Trimethoprim (b) Mercaptopurine (c) Methotrexate (d) Folic Acid 1.18 One of the following drugs has 1, 4-dihydropyridine structure, a tertiary amino group in the side chain and Ca channel antagonist action (a) Nitrodipine (b) Nicardinpine (c) Verapamil (d) Captopril 1.19. JUPAC name for one of the steroidal anti-inflammatory agents is 9c-Fluoro- 1 113, l6cL, l7cL,2 1-tetrahydroxy- 1,4-Pregnadiene-3,20-dione (a) Prednisolone (b) Betamethasone (c) Triamcinolone (d) Dexamethasone 1.20. CLOFAZIMINE belongs to a class of (a) Rhiminophenazines (b) Aryl piperazines (c) Phenothiazines (d) Benzyl piperazines 1.21. One of the drugs is an odd one in terms of its biological action (a) Diethyl Stilbestrol (b) Tamoxifen (c) Ethynyl Estradiol (d) Mestranol 1.22. The key intermediates for the synthesis of TIMOLOL are (a) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine (b) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (c) 3, 4-dibromo-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (d) 3-Chloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine 1.23. One of the following drugs interrupts the synthesis of thyroid hormones by preventing iodine incorporation into the tyrosyl residue of thyroglobulin (a) Levothyroxine (b) Liothyronine (c) Propyl thiouracil (d) Triiodo thyronine 1.24. Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by (a) Inhibiting transcription (b) Altering the genetic code (c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely (d) Post-translational modification 1.25 One of the following is a selective 132 stimulant (a) Caffeine (b) Salbutamol (c) Propranolol (d) Betahistine 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 Cascoriside A is an example of (a) 0-Glycoside (b) C-Glycoside (c) N- and 5- Glycoside (d) 0- and C- Glycoside 2.2. Precursor for the biosynthesis of Tropane group of alkaloids is (a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Ornithine (d) Tyrosine 2.3. The extraction of steroidal saponins on commercial scale is from (a) Dioscorea (b) Digitalis (c) Datura (d) Trigonella 2.4. Rauwolfia serpentine Benth., can be distinguished from other adulterants/substitutes of Rauwolfia spp. by (a) presence of starch grains (b) Presence of calcium oxa late crystals (c) Presence of trichomes (d) Presence of sclereids 2.5. Schedule FF contains the list of the following (a) Drugs which can be marked under generic names only (b) Drugs which are habit forming (c) Standards for ophthalmic preparation (d) Drugs which are exempt from certain provisions applicable to manufacturing 2.6. One of the following equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature (a) Stokes equation (b) Arrhenius equation (c) Yong equation (d) Michaelis-Menten equation 2.7. One of the following apparatus is used to determine the particle size by the gravity sedimentation method (a) Pyknometer (b) Ostwald viscometer (c) Andreasen apparatus (d) Friabilator 2.8. One of the following mills works on both the principles of attrition and impact (a) Cutter mill (b) Hammer mill (c) Roller mill (d) Fluid energy mill 2.9. A commonly used antioxidant for oil system is (a) Butylated hydroxyl toluene (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Sodium metabisulfite (d) Thioglycol 2.10. In Digitalis glycoside c7 position of the steroidal ring is substituted by (a) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactone ring (b) c-I3 unsaturated six membered lactone ring (c) c-I3 unsaturated six membered ring (d) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactam ring 2.11. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to Propranolol because (a) It has both c and 13 adrenergic blockade (b) It has both vasodilatory properties and 13 adrenergic blockade (c) It has a 13i selective antagonist and it does not enter the brain (d) It is a 132 selective antagonist 2.12. The major product formed by the condensation of 2-trifluoro methyl phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloropropyl-4-methyl piperazine). (a) Trifluoperidol (b) Trifluoperazine (c) Trifluopromazine (d) Trifluophenothiazine 2.13. One of the following statements is characteristic for natural estrogens (a) Aromatic ring with phenolic group and an estrange nucleus (b) Aromatic ring with an alcoholic group and a pregnane nucleus (c) Reduced ring system belonging to the class estrane (d) Reduced ring system belonging to the class pregnane 2.14. One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) (a) Somatostatin (b) Beta-endorphin (c) Leu-enkephalin (d) Dynorphin 2.15. The ultra short-acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to (a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins (b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in the brain (c) Metabolism is slow in the liver (d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility 2.16. Derivatisation is done in GC (a) To convert a less polar compound to a more polar compound (b) To make the compound non-volatile (c) To convert a polar compound to a less polar compound (d) To liquify a solid 2.17. Qualitative analysis by polarography is based on (a) Electrode potential (b) Half wave potential (c) Migration current (d) Limiting current 2.18. The stationary phase used in gel permeation chromatography is (a) Alumina (b) Charcoal (c) Squalene (d) Styrene divinyl benzyl co-polymer 2.19. A conductivity cell consists of (a) Two platinised-platinum electrodes (b) A platinum-calomel electrode system (c) A platinum-tungsten electrode system (d) A glass-calomel electrode system 2.20. A typical example of exotoxin is (a) Lipid - A (b) Cytokine (c) Tetanospasmin (d) Tuberculin 2.21. A specimen isolated from a patient suffering from septicemia was found to be a strict aerobe. Its culture vial had a characteristic grape like odour and it was susceptible to carbenicillin. Identify the organism. (a) Pseudomonas fluorescens (b) Salmonella typhi (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2.22. The pKa of lidocaine is 7.9. If the pH of the infected tissue is 8.9, the fraction of the drug in the ionized form will be (a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 90% (d) 99% 2.23. The drug regimen useful in the treatment of both intestinal and extra-intestinal symptoms of amoebiasis orally is (a) Diloxanide and lodoquinol (b) Paramomycin and Mefloquine (c) Metronidazole and Diloxanide (d) Chloroquine alone 2.24. The drug NIFEDIPINE can be synthesized from (a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine (d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine 2.25. Methyl malonyl CoA mutase which catalyzes the conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl CoA utilizes the prosthetic group derived from (a) Cyanocobalamine (b) Pyridoxine (c) Thiamine (d) Nicotinamide 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be (A) shielded (B) shifted (C) hydrogen bonded (D) deshielded 43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it should undergo (A) evaporation (B) condensation (C) nebulisation (D) precipitation 44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves (A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions (B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase (C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly (D) block thiamine transport 45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (A) requires pyridoxine supplementation (B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic (D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential 46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in (A) very low density lipoproteins (B) low density lipoproteins (C) cholesterol (D) high density lipoproteins 47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is (A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission (B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization (C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors (D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot i d 48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which contain (A) multi-layered tissues or cells (B) well defined particles which can be counted (C) oil globules (D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured 49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is (A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal schizolysigenous oil glands (B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains (C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil (D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows 50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid (A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template (B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t- RNA (C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid (D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the ribosome 51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a (A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin (B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses (C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin (D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum of horses Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D. 52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies (P) organic content of the drug (Q) mineral matter in the drug (R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc. (S) woody matters present in the drug (A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S 53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons (P) Acetaldehyde (Q) Butadiene (R) Formaldehyde (S) Benzene (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S 54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include (P) topical atropine (Q) topical pilocarpine (R) oral acetazolamide (S) oral pilocarpine (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by (P) Cascade impactor (Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method (5) JR spectrophotometry (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are (P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u m (Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule (R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction (5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group (A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q 57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are (P) slow localization in target tissue (Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information (R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information (5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are (P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins (Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables (R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite (S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight (A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S Group I Group II (Tablet Additives) (Examples) (P) Binder  (1) Acacia (Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil (R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose (5) Direct compression diluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose (A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4 (B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 (C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1 (D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 61. Group I Group II (JR Detectors ) (Composition) (P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni (Q) Pyroelectric Detector  (2) Bi-Sb (R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon (5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate (A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1 (C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2 62 Group I Group II (Alkaloid ) (Ring system) (P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline (Q) Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine (R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane (S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine (A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1 (B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2 (D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 3 63. Group I Group II (Immunoglobulins (Actions) [Ig]) (P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic (Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic (R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins (S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial (A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2 (B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3 (B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2 (D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 64 Group I Group II (Antibiotics) (Microorganism used in I.P. assay) (P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus (Q) Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis (R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae (S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus (A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4 (B)P-2Q-3R-45-1 (C)P-2Q-1R-35-4 (D)P-4Q-2R-35-1 Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each question from among the options A, B, C and D. Data for questions 66 to 68: Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical screening. (A) P (C) P Group I (Synthetic Group II estrogtenic_drugs_ (Methods of synthesis) ) (1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl (P) Ethinyl chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 + estradiol Cd4 (2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard (Q) Dienoestrol reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated with alcoholic KOH (R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent removal of water (5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide Group I Group II (Immunosuppressants (Mechanism of action) ) (P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells (Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further conversion inhibits purine metabolism (R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin (5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells 66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is (A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin (B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin (C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin (D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin 67. Microscopical character of trichomes is (A) unicellular, warty (B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells (C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells (D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells 68. The drug gives positive (A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test (C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test Data for questions 69 and 70: In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7- amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y. 69. Select the reagent P (A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde 70. The final product Y is (A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide (C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide Data for questions 70 to 73: Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite. 71. What is the reagent used for diazotization? (A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04 (C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04 72. Name the aliphatic amine used (A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine (C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine 73. Name the metabolite (A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil (C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide Data for questions 74 to 76: Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is 250 mm. 74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260 75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is (A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270 76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250 Data for questions 77 and 78: In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose absorbance is measured 77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI (A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid (C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid 78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour (A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride (B) Ninhydrin reagent (C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde (D) Phloroglucinol Data for questions 79 and 80: Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used. 79. Carbidopa is used because (A) it crosses blood brain barrier (B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase (C) it inhibits MAO type A (D) it inhibits MAO type B 80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA (A) Dementia (B) Hypertension (C) Dyskinesia (D) Excitotoxicity Data for questions 81 and 82: The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1. 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which mayoppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be(A) shielded(B) shifted(C) hydrogen bonded(D) deshielded43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because itshould undergo(A) evaporation(B) condensation(C) nebulisation(D) precipitation44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly(D) block thiamine transport45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in(A) very low density lipoproteins(B) low density lipoproteins(C) cholesterol(D) high density lipoproteins47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of newRNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eoti d48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs whichcontain(A) multi-layered tissues or cells(B) well defined particles which can be counted(C) oil globules(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidalschizolysigenous oil glands(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-RNA(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on theribosome51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum of horsesQ.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options arecorrect. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies(P) organic content of the drug(Q) mineral matter in the drug(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.(S) woody matters present in the drug(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons(P) Acetaldehyde(Q) Butadiene(R) Formaldehyde(S) Benzene(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include(P) topical atropine(Q) topical pilocarpine(R) oral acetazolamide(S) oral pilocarpine(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by(P) Cascade impactor(Q) light scatter decay(R) Karl-Fischer method(5) JR spectrophotometry(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri um(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are(P) slow localization in target tissue(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, SGroup IGroup II(Tablet Additives)(Examples)(P) Binder  (1) Acacia(Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil(R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose(5) Direct compressiondiluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3(C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-161.Group IGroup II(JR Detectors )(Composition)(P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni(Q) PyroelectricDetector  (2) Bi-Sb(R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon(5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-262Group IGroup II(Alkaloid )(Ring system)(P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline(Q)Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine(R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane(S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine(A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1(B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2(D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 363.Group IGroup II(Immunoglobulins(Actions)[Ig])(P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic(Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic(R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins(S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-264Group IGroup II(Antibiotics)(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)(P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus(Q)Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis(R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae(S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for eachquestion from among the options A, B, C and D.Data for questions 66 to 68:Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemicalscreening.(A) P(C) PGroup I(SyntheticGroup IIestrogtenic_drugs_(Methods of synthesis))(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl(P) Ethinylchloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +estradiolCd4(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard(Q) Dienoestrolreaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylatedwith alcoholic KOH(R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequentremoval of water(5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylideGroup IGroup II(Immunosuppressants(Mechanism of action))(P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells(Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on furtherconversion inhibits purine metabolism(R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin(5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin67. Microscopical character of trichomes is(A) unicellular, warty(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells68. The drug gives positive(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin testData for questions 69 and 70:In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequentlyit is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.69. Select the reagent P(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde70. The final product Y is(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxideData for questions 70 to 73:Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide toyield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with analiphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S0472. Name the aliphatic amine used(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine73. Name the metabolite(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanideData for questions 74 to 76:Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is250 mm.74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)26075. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)27076. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250Data for questions 77 and 78:In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution andsubsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammoniumsulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whoseabsorbance is measured77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride(B) Ninhydrin reagent(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde(D) PhloroglucinolData for questions 79 and 80:Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletalmuscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.79. Carbidopa is used because(A) it crosses blood brain barrier(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase(C) it inhibits MAO type A(D) it inhibits MAO type B80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA(A) Dementia(B) Hypertension(C) Dyskinesia(D) ExcitotoxicityData for questions 81 and 82:The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1.

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GATE Exam ElectricalEngineering Practice Exam

1.1 When the plate area of a parallel plate capacitor is increased keeping the capacitor voltage
constant, the force between the plates
(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the metal making up the plates
1.2 Two parallel wires separated by a distance d are carrying a current I in the same direction.
The magnetic field along a line running parallel to these wires and midway between them
(a) depends upon I
(b) is zero
(c) depends upon d
(d) depends upon the permeability of medium between the wires
1.3 An electromagnetic field is radiated from
(a) a stationary point charge
(b) a capacitor with a DC voltage
(c) a conductor carrying a DC current
(d) an oscillating dipole
1.4 The mobility of an electron in a conductor is expressed in terms of
(a)
cm2/V—s
(b)
cm/V—s
(C)
cm2/V
(d)cm2/s
1.5 An enhancement type n-channel MOSFET is represented by the symbol
(a) .— I
(b) .__ I
(c)
(d)
1.6 As the temperature is increased, the voltage across a diode carrying a diode
carrying a constant current
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending upon the doping levels in the junction
1.7 A single channel digital storage oscilloscope uses a 10 bit, i07 samples per second Analog-
to-Digital Converter. For a 100 KHz sine wave input, the number of samples taken per cycle of
the input will be
(a) i07
(b) i04
(c) i03
(d) 102
1.8 Higher synchronous reactance is preferred in the present day alternators,
because one can have
(a) reduced sub-transient currents
(b) reduced harmonic currents
(c) reduced transient currents
(d) higher voltage regulation with load
1.9 The RMS value of a half-wave rectified symmetrical square wave current of 2A is:
(a) 1OV
(b)
JA
(c) 200V
(d) 1A
1.10 Electodynamic type wattmeters have large errors while measuring power in ac circuits at
low power factor conditions, since the voltage across and the current through the
2Oc .ø—200
v—+
ioov (. 200V
5OHz I
(a) current coil are not in phase
(c) pressures coil are not in phase
(d) pressure coil are not in quadrature
1.11 The current in the circuit shown in Fig.1.12 is:
(a) 5A
(b) 1OA
(c) iSA
(d) 25A
1.12 For the circuit shown and Y will be
in Fig.below, the capacitance measured between terminals B
(a)
(b)
C+–
(c)
(c+3c)
(d)
3C+2C
An overhead line having a surge impedance of 400c is connected in series with an
underground cable having a surge impedance of iooc. If a surge of 50 kV travels from the line
end towards the line-cable junctions, the value of the transmitted voltage wave at the junction
is:
(a) 30 kV
(b) 20 kV
(c) 80 kV
(d) -30 kV
1.14 The load carrying capability of a long AC transmission line is:
(a) always limited by the conductor size
(b) limited by stability considerations
(c) reduced at a low ambient temperatures
(d) decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors
1.15 Corona losses are minimized when
(a) conductor size is reduced
(b) smooth conductor is reduced
(c) sharp points are provided in the line hardware
(d) current density in conductors is reduced
1.16 In a DC transmission line
(a) it is necessary for the sending end and receiving end to be operated in synchronism.
(b) the effects of inductive and capacitive reactances are greater than in an AC transmission
line of the same rating.
(c) there are not effects due to inductive and capacitive reactances
(d) power transfer capability is limited by stability considerations.
1.18 Steady state stability of a power system is the ability of the power system to (a)
maintain voltage at the rated voltage level
(b) maintain frequency exactly at 50 Hz
(c) maintain a spinning reserve margin at all times
(d) maintain synchronism between machines and on external tie lines
1.17. A 4-pole lap-wound DC generator has a developed power of P watts and voltage of E
volts. Two adjacent brushes of he machine are removed as they are worn out. If the machine
operates with the remaining brushes, the developed voltage and power that can be obtained
from the machine are
EP p p
(a) E, P
(b) –,-
(c) E,
(d) E,
1.18. Starting torque can be obtained in the case of a single phase induction motor with
identical main and auxiliary windings by connecting
(a) a capacitor across the mains
(b) a capacitor in series with the machine
(c) a capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding
(d) the main and the auxiliary windings in series
1.19. The windings of a QkVA, •—volt, three-phase, Delta connected, core type
transformer are reconnected to work as a single phase transformer. The maximum voltage
and the power ratings of the new configuration are,
(a) -,3Q
(b) J-r- E
(c) ,2Q
(d)
1.20. Resonant converters are basically used to
(a) generate large peaky voltage
(b) reduce the switching losses
(c) eliminate harmonics
(d) convert a square wave into a sine wave
1.21. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to
(a) reduce the total harmonic distortion with modest filtering
(b) minimize the load on the DC side
(c) increase the life of the batteries
(d) reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics
1.22 The following starting method for an induction motor is inferior view of the poor starting
torque per ampere of the line current drawn:
(a) Direct line starting
(b) Auto transformer method of starting
(c) Series inductor method of starting
(d) Star-Delta method of starting
2. This question consists of 25 (TWENTTY FIVE) sub-questions. Each sub-question carries TWO
marks. The answers to these sub-questions MUST be written only in the appropriate boxes
corresponding to the questions in the first page of the answer book.
2.1 The color code of a 1 kc resistance is:
(a) black, brown, red
(b) red, brown, brown
(c) brown, black, red
(d) black, black, red
2.2. A rectangular voltage pulse of magnitude V and duration T is applied to a series
combination of resistance R and capacitance C. The maximum voltage developed across the
capacitor is:
(a) V[1_exP
(c) V (d) Vexpj
2.3. When a periodic triangular voltage peak amplitude 1 V and frequency 0.5 Hz is applied to
a parallel combination of ic resistance and 1 F capacitance, the current through the voltage
source has wave-form.
(a) (b) //1
(c) h h (d)
2.4. For a flip-flop formed from two NAND X Q gates as shown in Fig below , the unusable
state corresponds to
2.5. The logic function
f
=
(x.)
+ is the same as
(a) f=(x+y)(x+y)
A
dB /6dBper
— —
I
octive
(b)
f=(x+y)+(x+y)
0dB
(c)
f
=
(x.y).(x.y)
(d) None of (a), (b) (c).
2.6. For a single phase overhead line having solid copper conductors of diameter 1 cm, spaced
60 cm between centers, the inductance in mH/km is:
(a) 0.05+0.21n60
(b) 0.21n60
(c) 0.05+0.2ln
(d) 0.2ln2
2.7. An industrial consumer has a daily load pattern of 2000 kW, 0.8 lag for 12 hours, and
1000 kW UPF for 12 hours. The load factor is:
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.6
(d) 2.0
2.8. A 220 kV, 20 km long, 3-phase transmission line has the following A, B, C, D constants. A
= D = 0.96 L3°, B = 55Z65°cVphase, C = 0.5E – 04Z80°S/phase. Its charging current per
phase is:
(a)
(b) hA
(c) 220A
(d)
2.9. A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 200 kW load has a power factor of 0.8 lag. A delta connected 3-
phase capacitor is used to improve the power factor to unity. The capacitance power phase of
the capacitor in microfarads is
(a) 3.948
(b) 1.316
(c) 0.439
(d) 11.844
2.10. A 10 kVA, 400 V/200V single-phase transformers with
10°h
impedance draws a steady
short circuit line current of
(a) 50 A
(b) 150 A
(c) 250 A
(d) 350 A
2.11. The percentage resistance and percentage reactance of a 10 kVA, 400 V/200 V,
3-phase transformer are 2% and lO% respectively. If the constant losses in the machine are
l%, the maximum possible percentage efficiency of the transformer is:
(a) 98.32
(b) 97.25
(c) 96.85
(d) 96.12
2.12. A 400V/100V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an auto- transformer
across a suitable voltage source. The maximum rating of such an arrangement could be
(a) 50 kVA
(b) 15 kVA
(c) 12.5 kVA
(d) 8.75 kVA
2.13. A DC shunt motor is running t I200 rmp, when excited with 220 V DC. Neglecting the
losses and saturation, the speed of the motor when connected to a 175 V DC supply is:
(a) 750 RPM
(b) 900 RPM
(c) 1050 RPM
(d) 1200 RPM
2.14. A three phase alternator is wound with a 60 degree phase-spread armature windings
and develops 300 kVA. If the armature is reconnected utilizing all the coils for single phase
operation with a phase spread of 180 degrees, the new rating of the machine is
(a) 100 kVA
(b) 200 kVA
(c) 250 kVA
(d) 300 kVA
2.15. A 10 kVA, 400 V/200 V, single phase transformer with a percentage resistance of 3%
and percentage reactance of 6% is supplying a current of 50 A to a resistive load. The value of
the load voltage is:
(a) 194 V
(b) 390 V
(c) 192 V
(d) 196 V
2.16. For a dual ADC type 3-digit DVM, the reference voltage is 100 mV and the first
integration time is set to 300 ms. For some input voltage, the “deintegration” period is 370.2
ms. The DVM will indicate
(a) 123.4
(b) 199.9
(c) 100.0
(d) 1.141
2.17. When a resistor R is connected to a current source, it consumes a power of 18 W. when
the same R is connected to a voltage source having the same magnitude as
the current source, the power absorbed by R is 4.5 W. The magnitude of the
current source and the value of R are
(a)
-JfäA
and ic
(b) 3A and
(c) 1A and 18
(d) 6A ad 0.5<2 2.18. A current of [2+*Jsin(sin(314t+3O)+2.Jcos(952t+45))1is measured with a thermocouple type, 5A full-scale, class 1 meter. The meter reading would lie in the range (a) 5A±1°h (b) (2+3J)A±10!o (c) 3A±1.7°h (d) 2A±2.5°h 2.19. Currents 11,12 and 13 meet at a junction (node) in a circuit. All currents are marked as entering the node. If I =—6sin(at)mA and 12 =Scos(at)mA, then 13 will be (a) locos(at + 36.87)mA (b) l4cos(at + 36.87)mA (c) —l4sin(at + 36.87)mA (d) —lOcos(at + 36.87)mA 2.20. Two lOOpA full-scale PMMC meters are employed to construct a 10 V and a 100V full scale voltmeter. These meters will have figures of merit (sensitivities) as (a) 10 k/V and 10 k/V (b) 100 k/V and 10 k/V (c) 10 k/V and 100 k/V (d) 10 k/V and 1 k/V 2.21. A fixed capacitor of reactance —jO.0212 is connected in parallel across a series combination of a fixed inductor of reactance jO.0112 and a variable resistance R. As R is varied from zero to infinity, the locus diagram of the admittance of this LC-R circuit will be (a) a semi-circle of diameter j 100 and center at zero. (b) a semi-circle of diameter j 50 and center at zero (c) a straight line inclined at an angle (d) a straight line parallel to the x-axis 2.22. The voltage phasor of a circuit is 10/15° V and the current phasor is 2Z-45° A. The active and the reactive powers in the circuit are: (a) 10 W and 17.32 VAr (b) 5 W and 8.66 VAr (c) 20 W and 60 VAr (d) 20J W and ioJ VAr This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. ANY FIFTEEN out of them have to be answered. If more number of questions are attempted, score off the answers not be evaluated, else, only the first fifteen unscored answers will be considered. 3. Solve the circuit shown in Fig.below using the mesh method of analysis and determine the mesh currents 11,12 and 13. Evaluate the power developed in the 1OV voltage source. 4. A constant voltage frequency sinusoidal voltage source of magnitude 4is connected to a series circuit made of a resistance of 1512, a coil of winding resistance R and inductance L and a 50 pF capacitor. The voltage across the 1512 resistors is 30V, across the coil iS 50V, across the capacitor is 40 V. the voltage across the combination of the 1512 -resistor and the coil together is 72.11 V. determine the values of the inductance L, winding resistance R and the source voltage V. 1000 5. The ratio error of a given A current transformer is zero when feeding 5 VA, upf burden at rated current. Estimate the iron loss of the current transformer at this operating condition if the secondary has 198 turns and a winding resistance of 0.0212. Neglect leakage reactance. 6. A charge +Q is uniformly distributed throughout the volume of a dielectric sphere of radius R and dielectric constant ER. based on Gauss law, determine the expressions for the electric field E as a function of distance r from the center of the sphere, within the ranges 0 < r < R and R r. Indicate expression(s) for the critical point (5) on the sketch. 7. The logic function F = AC + ABD + ACD is to be realized using an 8 to 1 multiplexer shown in Fig. below, using A, C and D as control inputs. (a) Indicate the inputs to be applied at the terminals 0 to 7. (b) Can the function be realize using a 4 to 1 multiplexer? State YES or NO. voltage, Vand inductor current i. 10. The input voltage v1in the circuit shown in Fig. below is a 1 kHz sine wave of 1 V amplitude. Assume ideal operational amplifiers with 15 ± VDC supply. Sketch on a single diagram the waveforms of the voltages v11,v0 and v1 shown, indicating the peak value of v1 and the average value v0. 11. Determine the magnitudes of the symmetrical components (IaQ÷,Ia÷,Ia)Of the currents in a three phase (RYB) three wire system, when a short circuit occurs between R and Y phase wires, the fault current being bOA. 12. A 6.6 kV, 50 Hz, single core lead-sheathed cable has the following data: Conductor diameter: 1.5 cm, length:4 km Internal diameter of the sheath : 3 cm Resistivity of insulation : 1.3 x 1012 c-m Relative permittivity of insulation : 3.5 Calculate: (a) the insulation resistance (b) the capacitance and (c) the maximum electric stress in the insulation 13. A 66 kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 150 km long overhead transmission line is open circuited at the receiving end. Each conductor has a resistance of 0.252/km, an inductive reactance of 0.512/km and a capacitive admittance to neutral of 0.04 x i04 S/km. (a) Draw the nominal t-equivaIent circuit and indicate the value of each parameter. (b) Calculate the receiving end voltage if the sending end voltage is 66 kV. 14. Determine the required MVA rating of the circuit breaker CB for the system shown in fig.14. Consider the grid as infinite bus. Choose 6 MVA as base. Transformer: 3-phase, 33/11 kV, 6 MVA, 0.01 + jO.08 p.u. impedance. Load: 3-phase, 11 kV, 5800 MVA, 0.8 lag, jO.2 p.u. impedance. Impedance of each feeder 9 + j1812. T 15. In a transmission line each conductor is at 20 kV and is supported by a string of 3 suspension insulators. The air capacitance between each cap-pin junction and tower is one- fifth of the capacitance C of each insulator unit. A guard ring, effective only over the line-end insulator unit is fitted so that the voltages on the two units nearest the line-end are equal. (a) Calculate the voltage on the line-end unit. (b) Calculate the value of capacitance C. required. 17. A 3 kW, 400V/200V, Delta/Star, 50 Hz, three phase, 6-pole induction motor is found to draw a line current of 25 A at a power factor of 0.4, when a blocked rotor test is conducted at the rated voltage. Determine the stator and rotor winding resistances in ohms per phase, if the torque developed by the motor under the above conditions is 25 N-m. 18. Two single-phase transformers A and B have the following parameters: Transformer A: 400V/200V, percentage resistance and percentage reactance 3°h and 4°h respectively. Transformer B: 5 kVA, 400V/200V, percentage resistance and percentage reactance are 4°h and 3°h respectively. These two transformers are connected in parallel and they share a common load of 12 kW at a power factor of 0.8 lagging. Determine the active and reactive power delivered by transformer A. 19. A separately excited DC shunt motor is driving a fan load whose torque is proportional to the square of the speed. When 100 V are applied to the motor, the current taken by the motor is 8A, with the speed being 500 rpm. At what applied voltage does the speed reach 750 rpm and then what is the current drawn by the armature? Assume the armature circuit resistance to be i2. Neglect brush drop and mechanical losses. 20. A 5 MVA, 11 kV, 3-phase star connected alternator is synchronized to the bus bars and is operating with an induced EMF of 125% of the rated voltage. If the load current is 500A, what is the power factor of operation? The machine has a synchronous reactance of 512 and negligible resistance per phase. 21. A three phase diode bridge is used to provide rectified output from a 400V, 50 Hz, 3-phase supply to a R-L load with i012 resistance and 300 mH inductance. Determine the (a) DC level of the output voltage (b) RMS value of the diode current, (c) RMS value of the source current, and (d) Apparent power drawn from the mains. 22. For the circuit shown in Fig. below, the internal resistance of the ammeters as well as that of the current coil of the wattmeter are zero, and the voltmeters have a very large figure of merit. A1 is a 6A full scale moving iron type meter. A2 is a commercial full wave rectifier type meter of full scale 5A. V is a 500V meter of the peak response type. electrodyna mometer A1,A2,V1,V2 and W. is a 300V PMMC type meter and W is an type, 5A, 230V wattmeter. Determine the readings of 1. In Fig. below, the value of R is (a) 2.5c (b) 5.Oc (c) 7.5c (d) iO.Oc 2. The RMS value of the voltage u(t)=3+4cos(3t)is: (a) -Jfv (b) 5V (C) 7V (d) (3+2%1)v 3. If is the electric field intensity, V.(VxE) is equal to (a) E (b) (c) null vector (d) zero 4. A system with zero initial conditions has the closed loop transfer function T(s) = S2 + 4 . The system output is zero at the frequency 1 OOV (a) 20V (b) by (c) 5V (d) CV 5. The gain margin of a unity feedback control system with the open loop transfer (s+1). function G(S)=z 2 is: (a) 0 (b) (c) (d)oo 6. In the matrix equation Px = q, which of the following is a necessary condition for the existence of at least one solution for the unknown vector x: (a) Augmented matrix [P q] must have the same rank as matrix P (b) Vector q must have only non-zero elements (c) Matrix P must be singular (d) Matrix P must be square 7. If P and Q are two random events, then the following is TRUE: (a) Independence of P and Q implies that probability (P n Q) = 0 (b) Probability (P u Q) < Probability (P) + Probability (Q) (c) If P and Q are mutually exclusive, then they must be independent (d) Probability (P n Q) < Probability (P) 8. If S = fx3dx, then S has the value (a) (b) - (c) (d) 1 9. The solution of the first order differential equation x(t) = —3x(t),x(O) = x0 is: (a) x(t) = x0e_3t (b) x(t)=x0e3 (C) x(t)=x0e3 (d) x(t)=x0et 10. The equivalent circuit of a transformer has leakage reactance X1,X and magnetizing reactance XM. Their magnitudes satisfy (a) X1 >> >> X
(b) X1 < (c) X1 = >>
X
(d) X1 =
X < 11. Which three-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase difference of 30° between its output and corresponding input line voltages (b) Star - Delta (c) Delta - Delta (d) Delta - Zigzag 12. For an induction motor, operating at a slip s, the ratio of gross power output to air gap power is equal to: (a) (1—s)2 (b) (1—s) (c) q(1_s) (d) (i_4) 13. The p.u. parameters for a 500 MVA machine on its own base are: inertia M = 20 p.u.; reactance X = 2 p.u. The p.u. values of inertia and reactance on 100 MVA common base, respectively, are (a) 4, 0.4 (b) 100, 10 (c) 4, 10 (d) 100, 0.4 14. An 800 kV transmission line has a maximum power transfer capacity on the operated at 400 kV with the series reactance unchanged, the new maximum power transfer capacity is approximately 15. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by (A) load power factor (B) switching over-voltages (C) harmonics (D) corona 16. High Voltage DC (HVDC) transmission is mainly used for (a) bulk power transmission over very long distances (b) inter-connecting two systems with the same nominal frequency (c) eliminating reactive power requirement in the operation (d) minimizing harmonics at the converter stations 17. Q-meter works on the principle of (a) mutual inductance (b) self inductance (c) series resonance (d) parallel resonance 18. A PMMC voltmeter is connected across a series combination of a DC voltage source V1 = 2Vand an AC voltage source v2 (t) = 3sin(4t) V. The meter reads (c) [2+4V (d) [çv 19. Assume that D1 and D2 in Fig.Q below are ideal diodes. The value of current I is: (a) 0 mA (b) 0.5 mA 2kc (c) 1 mA lmA1 (d) 2 mA 2kc 20. The 8085 assembly language instruction registers into the memory locations 2050H that stores the contents of H and L and 2051H’ respectively, is: (a) SPHL 2050H (b) SPHL 2051H (c) SHLD 2050H (d) STAX 2050H 21. Assume that the N-channel MOSFET shown in Fig. below is ideal, and that its threshold voltage is +1.OV. The voltage Vab between nodes a and b is: (a) 5V (b) 2V (c) 1V (d) CV 22. The digital circuit shown in Fig. below works as a (a) JKflip-flop (b) Clocked RS flip-flop (c) Tflip-flop (d) Ring counter 23. A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5V has a resolution close to 14 mV. Its bit size is: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 24. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by (a) a parabola (b) a straight line (c) a rectangular hyperbola (d) an exponentially decaying function 25. A three-phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400V RMS, 50 Hz, three-phase AC source. If the load is purely resistive, the peak instantaneous output voltage is equal to 400 (c) 4OOj V (d) -7=-V 26. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square-wave inverter contains (a) only even harmonics (b) both odd and even harmonics (c) only odd harmonics (d) only triplen harmonics Q.31 — Q.80 carry two marks each 31. The RL circuit of Fig.Q31 is fed from a constant magnitude, variable frequency sinusoidal voltage source VIN. At 100 Hz, the R and L elements each have a voltage drop URMS. If the frequency of the source is changed to 50 Hz, the new voltage drop across R is: (a) JURMS (b) J1URMS (c) JURMS (d) 4JURMS 32. The circuit shown in Fig. below is in steady state, when the switch is closed at t = 0. Assuming that the inductance is ideal, the current through the inductor at t = equals (a) 0 A (b) 0.5A (c) 1A (d) 2 A 33. For the three-phase circuit shown in Fig. below, the ratio of the current : I>,
:
18
is
(a) i:i:J
(b) 1:1:2
(c) 1:1:0
(d) i:i:J
34. For the triangular waveform shown in Fig. below, the RMS value of the voltage is equal to
(a)
T
T
2
(b)
2T t
2
1
(c). (d)
1 DV
t=o
35. The charge distribution in a metal-dielectric-semiconductor specimen is shown in Fig.
below. The negative charge density decreases linearly in the semiconductor as shown. The
electric field distribution is as shown in
(c)
(d) Dielectric
36. In Fig. below, the Thevenin’s equivalent pair (voltage, terminals P-Q, is given by
(a) (2V, 512)
(b) (2V, 7.512)
(c) (4V, 512)
(d) (4V, 7.512)
37. A unity feedback system, having an open loop gain
K(1-s)
G(s)H(s)
= ,becomes stable when
(1+s)
Metal
Semiconductor
(a) K>1
(b) K >1
(c) K<1 (d) K < -1 39. In the GH(s) plane, the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s)H(s) = passes through the negative real axis at the point (a) (-0.25,j0) (b) (-0.5,j0) (c) (-1,j0) (d) (-2,j0) 40. If the compensated system shown in Fig.below, has a phase margin of 600 at the crossover frequency of 1 rad/sec, the value of the gain K is: (a) 0.366 (b) 0.732 (c) 1.366 (d) 2.738 41. For the matrix 3 —2 2 P = 0 —2 1 ,one of the eigen values is equal to —2. Which of the following is 001 an eigen vector? (a) —2 (b) 2 (d) 5 42. If 1 0 —1 R = 2 1 —1 , the top row of R1 is: 232 (a) [5 6 4 (b) [5 —3 1 (c) [2 0 —1 (d) [2 —1 43. A fair coin is tossed three times in succession. If the first toss produces a head, then the probability of getting exactly two heads in three tosses is: (a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 4 44. For the function f(x) = x2e’,the maximum occurs when x is equal to: (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 45. For the scalar field u = + _, the magnitude of the gradient at the point (1,3) is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 46. For the equation i(t)+3k(t)+2x(t) = 5,the solution x(t)approaches the following values at t — (a) 0 (b) (c) 5 (d) 10 47. The Laplace transform of a function f(t) is 5s2 +23s+6 F(s) = . As t — oo,f(t)approaches s(s2 +2s+2) (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) (d)oo 48. The Fourier series for the function f(x) = sin2 xis: (a) sinx+sin2x (b) 1—cos2x (c) sin2x+cos2x (d) 0.5—0.Scos2x 49. If u(t)is the unit step and S(t)is the unit impulse function, the inverse ztransform of F(z) = 1 for k 0 is: z+1 (a) (_1)k 5(k) (b) 5(k)_(_1)k (c) (_1)k u(k) (d) u(k)_(_1)k 50. Two magnetic poles revolve around a stationary armature carrying two coils (c1 —c1’,c2 —c)as shown in Fig. below, Consider the instant when the poles are in a position as shown. Identify the correct statement regarding the polarity of the induced emf at this instant in coil sides c1 and c2. 51. A 50 kW dc shunt motor is loaded to draw rated armature current at any given speed. When driven (i) at half the rated speed by armature voltage control and (ii) at 1.5 times the rated speed by field control, the respective output powers delivered by the motor are approximately (a) 25 kW in (i) and 75 kW in(ii) (c) 50 kW in (i) and 75 kW in (ii) (b) 25 kW in (i) and 50 kW in (ii) (d) 50 kW in (i) and 50 kW in (ii) 52. In relation to the synchronous machines, which one of the following statements is false? (a) In salient pole machines, the direct-axis synchronous reactance is greater than the quadrature-axis synchronous reactance (b) The damper bars help the synchronous motor self-start (c) Short circuit ratio is the ratio of the field current required to produce the rated voltage on open circuit to the rated armature current (d) The V-curve of a synchronous motor represents the variation in the armature current with field excitation, at a given output power 53. Under no load condition, if the applied voltage to an induction motor is reduced from the rated voltage to half the rated value, (a) the speed decreases and the stator current increases (b) both the speed and the stator current decrease (c) the speed and the stator current remain practically constant (d) there is negligible change in the speed but the stator current decreases 54. A three-phase cage induction motor is started by direct-on-line (DCL) switching at the rated voltage. If the starting current drawn is 6 times the full load current, and the full load slip is 4%, the ratio of the starting developed torque to the full load torque is approximately equal to (a) 0.24 (b) 1.44 (c) 2.40 (d) 6.00 55. In a single phase induction motor driving a fan load, the reason for having a high resistance rotor is to achieve (a) low starting torque (b) quick acceleration (c) high efficiency (d) reduced size 56. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion: Under V/f control of induction motor, the maximum value of the developed torque remains constant over a wide range of speed in the sub- synchronous region. Reason: The magnetic flux is maintained almost constant at the rated value by keeping the ratio V/f constant over the considered speed range. (a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (b) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] (c) Both [a] and [r] are false (d) [a] is true but [r] is false 57. The parameters of a transposed overhead transmission line are given as: Self reactance x = 0.52/km and Mutual reactance Xm = 0.1c/km The positive sequence reactance x1and zero sequence reactance x0, respectively, in c/km are (a) 0.3, 0.2 (b) 0.5, 0.2 (c) 0.5, 0.6 (d) 0.3, 0.6 58. At an industrial sub-station with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain the load power factor at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of service, the load power factor becomes (a) 0.85 lag (b) 1.00 lag (c) 0.80 lag (d) 0.90 lag 59. A load centre is at an equidistant from the two thermal generating stations G1 and G2 as shown in Fig. below,. The fuel cost characteristics of the generating stations are given by I F2=a+bP2+2cP Rs/hour Loa G2 where P1 and P2 are the generation in MW of G1 and G2, respectively. For most economic generation to meet 300 MW of load, P1 and P2. respectively, are (a) 150, 150 (b) 100, 200 (c) 200, 100 (d) 175, 125 60. Two networks are connected in cascade as shown in Fig.Q62. With the usual notations the equivalent A, B, C and D constants are obtained. Given that C = 0.025/45°, the value of Z2 is: (a) 10Z30°c (b) 40Z—45°c (c) 112 (d) oc 61. A generator with constant 1.0 p.u. terminal voltage supplies power through a step-up transformer of 0.12 p.u. reactance and a double-circuit line to an infinite bus bas as shown in Fig.Q63. The infinite bus voltage is maintained at 1.0 p.u. Neglecting the resistances and susceptances of the system, the steady state stability power limit of the system is 6.25 p.u. If one of the double-circuit is tripped, the resulting steady state stability power limit in p.u. will be (a) 12.5 p.u. (b) 3.125p.u. (d) 5.0 p.u. 62. The simultaneous application of signals x(t) and y(t)to the horizontal and vertical plates, respectively, of an oscilloscope, produces a vertical figure-of-S display. If P and Q are constants, and x(t) = P sin(4t + 30), then y(t) is equal to (a) Qsin(4t—30) (b) Qsin(2t+15) (c) Qsin(8t+60) (d) Qsin(4t+30) 63. A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.112 and its current range is 0 — bOA. If the range is to be extended to 0 — 500A, the meter requires the following shunt resistance: (a) 0.01012 (b) 0.01.112 (c) 0.02512 (d) i.oc 64. The set-up in Fig.Q66 is used to measure resistance R. The ammeter and voltmeter resistances are 0.0112 and 200012, respectively. Their readings are 2A and 1SOV, respectively, giving a measured resistance of 9012. The percentage error in the measurement is: (a) 2.25°h (b) 2.35°h (c) 4.5°h (d) 4.71°h 65. A 1000 V DC supply has two 1-core cables as its positive and negative leads; their insulation resistances to earth are 4 M12 and 6 M12, respectively, as shown in Fig. below, A voltmeter with resistance 50 K12 is used to measure the insulation of the cable. When connected between the positive core and earth, the voltmeter reads _______ _______ (a) 8V (b) 16V (c) 24V (d)40V 66. Two wattmeters, which are connected to measure the total power on a three- phase system supplying a balanced load, read 10.5 kW and —2.5 kW, respectively. The total power and the power factor, respectively, are (a) 13.0 kW, 0.334 (b) 13.0 kW, 0.684 (c) 8.0 kW, 0.52 (d) 8.0 kW, 0.334 67. The common emitter amplifier shown in Fig. below is biased using a 1 mA ideal current source. The approximate base current value is: (a) 0 pA (b) 10 pA (c) 100 pA (d) 1000 pA 68. Consider the inverting amplifier, using an ideal operational amplifier shown in Fig. below, The designer wishes to realize the input resistance seen by the small- signal source to be as large as possible, while keeping the voltage gain between —10 and —25. the upper limit on R, is 1 M2. The value of R1 should be (a) Infinity RF (b) 1 (c) 100 (d) 40 69. If X1 and X2 are the inputs to the circuit shown in Fig. below, the output Q is: (a) X1+X2 (b) X1.X2 (c) X.X2 (d) X1.X2 Q 70. In Fig. below, as long as X1 = 1 and X2 = l,the output Q remains (a) ati X1 (b) at 0 (c) at its initial value X2 (d) unstable 71. Fig. below shows the voltage across a power semiconductor device and the current through the device during a switching transition. Is the transition a turn ON transition or a turn OFF transition? What is the energy lost during the transition? (a) Turn ON, -(ti+t2) V (b) Turn OFF, VI(t1 +t2) V (c) Turn ON, VI(t1 +t2) // (d) Turn OFF, (t1 +t2) I 72. An electronic switch S is required trblock voltages of either polarity during its OFF state as shown in Fig. below . This switch is required to conduct in only one direction during its ON state as shown in Fig. below. (P) (R) (Q) (S) (a) Only P (b) P and Q (C) PandR (d) R and S 73. Fig. below, shows a step-down chopper switched at 1 KHz with a duty ratio D = 0.5. The peak-peak ripple in the load current is close to 74. An electric motor, developing a starting torque of 15 Nm, starts with a load torque of 7 Nm on its shaft. If the acceleration at start is 2 rad/sec2, the moment of inertia of the systems must be (neglecting viscous and Coulomb/friction). (a) 0.25 kg m2 (b) 0.25 Nm2 (c) 4 kg m2 (d) 4 Nm2 Linked Answer Questions: 81a to Q85b carry two marks each Statement for Linked Answer Questions 81a & 81b: A coil of inductance 10 H resistance 40i2 is connected as shown in Fig.below, After the switch S has been in connection with point 1 for a very long time, it is moved to point 2 at t = 0. (b) 20c (c) 4012 120V (d) 6012 (B) For the value of R obtained in (a), the time taken for 95% of the stored energy dissipated is close to (a) 0.10 sec (b) 0.15 sec (c) 0.50 sec (d) 1.0 sec (a) 1OA (b) 0.5A (c) 0.125 A (d) 0.25 A 100V Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a & 82b: A state variable system )(t) =[ X(t)+[u(t)with the initial condition X(0) =[—1 31T and the unit step input u(t)has 82. (A) The state transition matrix 1 ---(1_e_3t) 1 ---(e_t_e_3t) (a) 3 (b) 3 o e3’ 0 e_t 1 ---1’e_t_e_3t 1 (1_e_t) (c) 3k (d) o e_3t 0 e_t (B) and the state transition equation (a) X(t)=[t1 (b) X(t)=[t1 (c) X(t)=[t31 f’ATEFon(d) x(t)=[t1 Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a & 83b: A 1000 kVA, 6.6 kV, 3-phase star connected cylindrical pole synchronous generator has a synchronous reactance of 20 2. Neglect the armature resistance and consider operation at full load and unity power factor. 83. (A) The induced emf (line-to-line) is close to (a) 5.5 kV (b) 7.2 kV (c) 9.6 kV (d) 12.5 kV (B) The power (or torque) angle is close to (a) 13.9° (b) 18.3° (c) 24.6° (d) 33.0° Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a & 84b: At a 220 kV substation of a power system, it is given that the three-phase fault level is 4000 MVA and single-line to ground fault level is 5000 MVA. Neglecting the resistance and the shunt susceptances of the system, 84. (A) the positive sequence driving point reactance at the bus is: (a) (b) 4.033c (c) 5.5c (d) 12.1c (B) and the zero sequence driving point reactance at the bus is: (a) 2.2c (b) 4.84 2 (c) 18.1812 (d) 22.7212 Statement for Linked Answer Questions voltage of the N-channel MOSFET shown characteristics of the MOSFET are also shown. v,=2r (a) 0.75 mS (b) 1 mS 85a & 85b: Assume that the threshold in Fig. below is +0.75V. The output (c) 2 mS (d) 10 mS (B) The voltage gain of the amplifier is: (a) +5 (b) -7.5 (c) +10 (d)-10 1. Consider the polynomial p(x) = a0 +a1x+a2x2 +a3x2, where a1 (- 0,Vi. The minimum number of multiplications needed to evaluate pon an input x is: (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 9 2. Let X,Y,Z be sets of sizes x, y and z respectively. Let W = XxY and E be the set of all subsets of W. The number of functions from Z to E is: (A) Z2XY (B) Zx2 (C) Z2XY (D) 2XYZ 3. The set {1,2,3,5,7,8,91 under multiplication modulo 10 is not a group. Given below are four plausible reasons. Which one of them is false? (A) It is not closed (B) 2 does not have an inverse (C) 3 does not have an inverse (D) 8 does not have an inverse 4. A relation R is defined on ordered pairs of integers as follows: (x,y)R(u,v)if x < u andy>
v.
Then R is:
(A) Neither a Partial Order nor an Equivalence Relation
(B) A Partial Order but not a Total Order
(C) A Total Order
(D) An Equivalence Relation
5. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the time-
to-live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header?
(A) Ensure packets reach destination within that time
(B) Discard packets that reach later than that time
(C) Prevent packets from looping indefinitely
(D) Limit the time for which a packet gets queued in intermediate routers.
6. Consider three CPU-intensive processes, which require 10, 20 and 30 time units and arrive
at times 0, 2 and 6, respectively. How many context switches are needed if the operating
system implements a shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm? Do not count the
context switches at time zero and at the end.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
7. Consider the following grammar.
Consider the following LR(0) items corresponding to the grammar above.
Given the items above, which two of them will appear in the same set in the canonical sets-of-
items for the grammar?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) None of the above
8. You are given a free running clock with a duty cycle of 50% and a digital waveform f which
changes only at the negative edge of the clock. Which one of the following circuits (using
clocked D flip-flops) will delay the phase of f by 1800?
9. A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal). Which one of
the following is a legal program counter (all values in decimal)?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700
10. In a binary max heap containing
n
numbers, the smallest element can be found in time
(A)
0(n)
(B)
O(logn)
(C) 0(loglogn)
(D)
0(1)
11. Consider a weighted complete graph Gon the vertex set
{v1,v2
,v} such that the weight of
the edge
(v,,v)
is
2i-j.
The weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is:
(A)
n—i
(B)
2n—2
(C)
(D) 2
12. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is:
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Heap
(D) B-Tree
13. A scheme for storing binary trees in an array X is as follows. Indexing of X starts at 1
instead of 0. the root is stored at X[1]. For a node stored at X[i], the left child, if any, is stored
in X[2i] and the right child, if any, in X[2i+1]. To be able to store any binary tree on nvertices
the minimum size of X should be
(A) log2
n
(B)
n
(C)
2n+1
(D) 2—1
14. Which one of the following in place sorting algorithms needs the minimum number of
swaps?
(A) Quick sort
(B) Insertion sort
(C) Selection sort
(D) Heap sort
15. Consider the following C-program fragment in which
i,j
and nare integer variables.
for (i = n,j = 0; i >0; i
1=
2,j +=i);
Let val(j)denote the value stored in the variable jafter termination of the
for
loop. Which one
of the following is true?
(A)
val(j)
=
8(logn)
(B)
vaI(j)=8(fi)
(C)
val(j)=8(n)
(D)
val(j)= 8(nlogn)
16. Let S be an NP-complete problem and Q and R be two other problems not known to be in
NP. Q is polynomial time reducible to S and S is polynomial-time reducible to R. Which one of
the following statements is true?
(A) R is NP-complete
(B) R is NP-hard
(C) Q is NP-complete
(D) Q is NP-hard
17. An element in an array X is called a leader if it is greater than all elements to the right of
it in X. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array
(A) Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array
(B) Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array
(C) Solves it using divide and conquer in time
8(nlogn)
(D) Solves it in time
8(n2)
18. We are given a set X {x1
x}
where x, = 2’. A sample S c Xis drawn by selecting each
x,independently with probability p, =-.The expected value of the smallest number in sample S
is:
(A)
(B) 2
(C)
(D)
n
19. Let
L1 {OnminOmnm>O1L {Onmin+mOmnm>O}
and
i
= {jt
n rnjn mflm
01. Which of these languages are NOT context free?
(A)
L1
only
(B)
L3
only
(C)
L1
and
L2
(D)
L2
and
L3
20. Consider the following log sequence of two transactions on a bank account, with initial
balance 12000, that transfer 2000 to a mortgage payment and then apply a 5% interest.
1. T1 start
2. T1 B old= 1200 new= 10000
3. T1 M old=0 new=2000
4. T1 commit
5. T2start
6. T2 B old= 10000 new= 10500
7. T2 commit
Suppose the database system crashes just before log record 7 is written. When
the system is restarted, which one statement is true of the recovery procedure?
(A) We must redo log record 6 to set B to 10500
(B) We must undo log record 6 to set B to 10000 and then redo log records 2 and 3
(C) We need not redo log records 2 and 3 because transaction Ti has committed
(D) We can apply redo and undo operations in arbitrary order because they are idempotent.
Q.21 — Q.75 Carry Two Marks Each
21. For each element in a set of size
2n,an
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2ncoin tosses are
independent. An element is chosen if the corresponding coin toss were head. The probability
that exactly
n
elements are chosen is:
(A) 2n
22. Let E, F and G be finite sets.
Let
X=(EflF)-(FflG)
and
Y=(E_(EflG))_(E_F).
Which one of the following is true?
(A)
XcY
(B)
XDY
(C)
X=Y
(D)
X-Y ØandY-X Ø
23. F is an nxn real matrix. b is an nxi real vector. Suppose there are two nxivectors,
u
and
vsuch that
u
v,and
Fu
=
b,Fv
=
b.
Which one of the following statements is false?
(A) Determinant of
F
is zero
(B) There are an infinite number of solutions to
Fx
=
b
(C) There is an x Osuch that
Fx
= 0
(D)
F
must have two identical rows
24.
integers S, and ,r(S) is the set of integers obtained by applying permutation rto each
element of S?
(A)
(n-AUBAHB
(B)
(A2
+B2)n2
(C)
n!
(D)
A
fl B2/[A U
B
25. Let S = {1,2,3
,m},m>3.
Let X1 X be subsets of S each of size 3.
Define a function ffrom Sto the set of natural numbers as,
f(i)is
the number of sets Xthat
contain the element
I.
That is
f (I)={jIE
x7[.
Then
f(i)is:
(A) 3m
(B)
3n
(C) 2m+1
(D) 2n+1
26. Which one of the first order predicate calculus statements given below correctly expresses
the following English statement?
Tigers and lions attack if they are hungry or threatened.
(A) vx[(tiger(x) A lion(x)) — {(hungry(x) v threatened(x)) — attacks(x))1
(B) Vx [(tiger (x) v lion (x)) — {(hungry (x) v threatened (x)) A attacks (x)j
(C) Vx[(tiger(x) v lion(x)) — {attacks(x) — (hungry(x) v threatened(x)))1
(D) vx[(tiger(x) v lion(x)) — {(hungry(x) v threatened(x)) — attacks(x))1
27. Consider the following propositional statements:
Pl:((AAB)C))((AC)A(BC))
P2:((AvB)C))((A—C)v(B_C))
Which one of the following is true?
(A) P1 is a tautology, but not P2
(B) P2 is a tautology, but not P1
(C) P1 and P2 are both tautologies
(D) Both P1 and P2 are not tautologies
28. A logical binary relation
a,
is defined as follows:
Let be the unary negation (NOT) operator, with higher precedence then o. Which one of the
following is equivalent to
A
A
B?
(A)
(‘-‘.‘AOB)
(B)
-‘.‘(AO’-..’B)
(C)
“.‘(“.‘Ao”.’B)
(D)
AOB)
29. If
s
is a string over (0 + 1)* then let
n0 (s)
denote the number of 0’s in
s
and
n1
(s)the number of l’s in
s.
Which one of the following languages is not
regular?
(A)
L
=
{s
(0 + 1)*n0
(s)
is a 3-digit prime
(B)
L
=
{s
E (0 + 1)* for every prefix
s’
of
s, fl0 (s’)

n1 (s’)
2}
(C)
L={sE(0+1)*n0(s)_n1(s)4}
(D)
L
=
{s
E (0 + 1) j
n0 (s)
mod 7 =
n1 (s)
mod 5 = 0)
30. For SE (0+1)*let d(s)denote the decimal value of
s(e.g.d(101)=
5). Let
L
=
{s
E (0 + 1) j
d (s)
mod 5 = 2 and
d (s)
mod 7 = 4)
Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) L is recursively enumerable, but not recursive
(B) L is recursive, but not context-free
(C) L is context-free, but not regular
(D) L is regular
31. Let SHAM3 be the problem of finding a Hamiltonian cycle in a graph G
=(V,E)with
V
divisible by 3 and DHAM3 be the problem of determining if a Hamiltonian cycle exists in such
graphs. Which one of the following is true?
A B
AoB
True True True
True Fals
e True
Fals
e True False
Fals
Fals
e
e True
(A) Both DHAM3 and SHAM3 are NP-hard
(B) SHAM3 is NP-hard, but DHAM3 is not
(C) DHAM3 is NP-hard, but SHAM3 is not
(D) Neither DHAM3 nor SHAM3 is NP-hard
32. Consider the following statements about the context free grammar G = {S –
SS,
S –
ab, S

ba, S
-}
I. G is ambiguous
II. G produces all strings with equal number of a’s and b’s
III. G can be accepted by a
deterministic PDA.
Which combination below expresses all the true statements about G?
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
33. Let
L1
be a regular language,
L2
be a deterministic context-free language and
L3
a
recursively enumerable, but not recursive, language. Which one of the following statements is
false?
(A)
L1
fl
L
is a deterministic CFL
(B)
L3
fl
L
is recursive
(C)
L1
U
L2
is context free
(D)
L1
fl
L fl L3
is recursively enumerable
34. Consider the regular language
L
=(111+11111)*. The minimum number of
states in any DFA accepting this languages is:
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
Consider the circuit above. Which one of the following options correctly represents
f(x,y,z)?
(A)
xz+xy+yz
(B)
xz+xy+yz
(C)
xz+xy+yz
(D)
xz+xy+yz
36. Given two three bit numbers a2a1a0 and
b2b1b0
and
c,
the carry in, the function that
represents the
carry
generate function when these two numbers are added is:
(A)
a2b2
+
a2a1b1
+
a2a1a0b0
+
a2a0b1b0
+
a1b2b1
+
a1a0b2b0
+
a0b2b1b0
(B)
a2b2
+
a2b1b0
+
a2a1b1b0
+
a1a0b2b1
+
a1a0b2
+
a1a0b2b0
+
a2a0b1b0
(C) a2
+b2 +(a2 $b2)(a1 +b1 +(a1 $b1) (a0 +b0))
(D)
a2b2
+
a2a1b1
+
a2 a1a0b0
+
a2 a0 b1b0
+
a1 b2 b1
+
a1a0 b2b0
+
a0 b2b1b0
37. Consider the circuit in the diagram. The $ operator represents Ex-OR. The D flip- flops are
initialized to zeroes (cleared).
The following data: 100110000 is supplied to the “data” terminal in nine clock
cycles. After that the values of q2q1q0 are:
(A) 000
(B) 001
(C) 010
(D) 101
38. Consider a Boolean function
f (w,x,y,z).
suppose that exactly one of its inputs is allowed to
change at a time. If the function happens to be true for two input vectors
i
=
(w1,x1,y1,z1)
and ‘2
(w2,x2,y2,z2),
we would like the function to
remain true as the input changes from
i
to ‘2 (‘ and ‘2 differ in exactly one bit position),without becoming false
momentarily. Let
f (w,x,y,z)
= (5,7,11,12,13,15). Which of the following cube covers of f will
ensure that the required property is satisfied?
(A)
wxz, wxy, xyz, xyz, wyz
(B)
wxy,wxz,wyz
(C)
wxyz,xz,wxyz
(D)
wzy, wyz, wxz, wxz, xyz, xyz
39. We consider the addition of two 2’s complement numbers
b 1b
2
.b0
and a 1a 2….a0. A
binary adder for adding unsigned binary numbers is used to add the two numbers. The sum is
denoted by
c 1c 2….c0
and the carry-out by
cQLJ.
Which one of the following options correctly
identifies the overflow condition?
(A)
c0(a1sb1)
(B) a
1b
1c+a
1b
1C
(C)
cQLJ
1
(D)
a1$b1$c1
40. Consider numbers represented in 4-bit gray code. Let
h3h2h1h0
be the gray code
representation of a number nand let
g3g2g1g0be
the gray code of (n+1) (modulo 16) value of
the number. Which one of the following functions is correct?
(A)
g0(h3h2h1h0)=(1,2,3,6,1O,13,14,15)
(B)
g1(h3h2h1h0)=
(4,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)
(C)
g2(h3h2h1h0)=(2,4,5,6,7,12,13,15)
(D)
g3(h3h2h1h0)=(0,1,6,7,10,11,12,13)
41. A CPU has a cache with block size 64 bytes. The main memory has kbanks, each bank
being cbytes wide. Consecutive c—byte chunks are mapped on consecutive banks with wrap-
around. All the kbanks can be accessed in parallel, but two accesses to the same bank must
be serialized. A cache block access may involve multiple iterations of parallel bank accesses
depending on the amount of data obtained by accessing all the kbanks in parallel. Each
iteration requires decoding the bank numbers to be accessed in parallel and this takes
–ns.
The latency of one bank access is 80 ns. If
c
= 2 and
k
= 24, the latency of retrieving a cache
block starting at address zero from main memory is:
(A) 92 ns
(B) 104 ns
(C) 172 ns
(D) 184 ns
42. A CPU has a five-stage pipeline and runs at 1 GHz frequency. Instruction fetch happens in
the first stage of the pipeline. A conditional branch instruction computes the target address
and evaluates the condition in the third stage of the pipeline. The processor stops fetching
new instructions following a conditional branch until the branch outcome is known. A program
executes io instructions out of which 20% are conditional branches. If each instruction takes
one cycle to complete on average, the total execution time of the program is:
(A) 1.0 second
(B) 1.2 seconds
(C) 1.4 seconds
(D) 1.6 seconds
43. Consider a new instruction named branch-on-bit-set (mnemonic bbs). The instruction
“bbs
reg, pos, label”
jumps to label if bit in position
pos
of register operand
reg
is one. A register is
32 bits wide and the bits are numbered 0 to 31, bit in position 0 being the least significant.
Consider the following emulation of this instruction on a processor that does not have
bbs
implemented.
temp

reg & mask
Branch to
label
if temp is non-zero.
The variable
temp
is a temporary register. For correct emulation, the variable mask must be
generated by
(A)
mask —0x1< (B) mask f— 0 x rrrrrrrr >>
pos
(C)
mask—pos
(D)
mask —0xf
44. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station B using a sliding window
protocol. The round trip delay between A and B is 80 milliseconds and the bottleneck
bandwidth on the path between A and B is 128 kbps. What is the optimal window size that A
should use?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 160
(D) 320
45. Two computers Cl and C2 are configured as follows. Cl has IP address
203.197.2.53 and netmask 255.255.128.0. C2 has IP address 203.197.75.201 and netmask
255.255.192.0. which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Cl and C2 both assume they are on the same network
(B) C2 assumes Cl is on same network, but Cl assumes C2 is on a different network
(C) Cl assumes C2 is on same network, but C2 assumes Cl is on a different network
(D) Cl and C2 both assume they are on different networks.
46. Station A needs to send a message consisting of 9 packets to Station B using a sliding
window (window size 3) and go-back-n error control strategy. All packets are ready and
immediately available for transmission. If every 5th packet that A transmits gets lost (but no
acks from B ever get lost), then what is the number of packets that A will transmit for sending
the message to B?
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18
47. Consider the following graph:
Which one of the following cannot be the sequence of edges added, in that
order, to a minimum spanning tree using Kruskal’s algorithm?
(A)
(a—b),(d—f),(b—f),(d—c),(d—e)
(B)
(a—b),(d—f),(d—c),(b—f),(d—e)
(C)
(d—f),(a—b),(d—c),(b—f),(d—e)
(D)
(d—f),(a—b),(b—f),(d—e),(d—c)
48. Let
T
be a depth first search tree in an undirected graph G. Vertices
u
and
v
are leaves of
this tree
T.
The degrees of both
u
and
v
in G are at least 2. which one of the following
statements is true?
(A) There must exist a vertex
w
adjacent to both
u
and
v
in G
(B) There must exist a vertex
w
whose removal disconnects
u
and
v
in G
(C) There must exist a cycle in G containing
u
and
v
(D) There must exist a cycle in G containing uand all its neighbours in G.
49. An implementation of a queue Q, using two stacks Si and S2, is given below:
void insert (Q, x)
push (Si, x);
void delete (Q)
if (stack—empty(52)) then
if
(stack—empty(Si)) then
print(”Q is empty”);
return;
else while (! (stack—empty (Si)))
x=pop (Si);
push(52,x)
x=pop (S2);
Let
flinsert
and
m(
n)delete operations be performed in an arbitrary order on an empty queue
Q. Let x and y be the number of
push
and pop operations performed respectively in the
process. Which one of the following is true for all
m
and
n?
(A)
n+m x<2n and 2m (B) n+m x<2n and 2m (C) 2m x<2n and 2m (D) 2m x<2n and 2m 50. A set X can be represented by an array x[nl as follows: Ii ifx[i1]= O otherwise Consider the following algorithm in which x,y and z are Boolean arrays of size n: algorithm zzz(x[ 1, y[ 1, z [ mt i; for (i=O; i z[i] = (x[i] Ay[i]) V (x[i] A y[i]) } The set Z computed by the algorithm is: (A) (XUY) (B) (xflY) (C) (X-Y)fl(Y-X) (D) (x-Y)U(Y-x) 51. Consider the following recurrence: T(n)=2T(r*i1)+1,T(1) = 1 Which one of the following is true? (A) T(n) = e(loglogn) (B) T(n) = e(logn) (C) T(n)=8(sJ) (D) T(n)rz8(n) 52. The median of n elements can be found in O(n)time. Which one of the following is correct about the complexity of quick sort, in which median is selected as pivot? (A) 8(n) (B) e(nlogn) (C) 8(n2) (D) 8(n3) 53. Consider the following C-function in which a[nl and b[mlare two sorted integer arrays and c[n + mibe another integer array. void xyz(int a[], mt b [1, mt c []){ mt i,j,k; i=j=k=O; while ((i if (a[i] < b[j]) c[k++] = a[i++]; else c[k++] = Which of the following condition(s) hold(s) after the termination of the while loop? (i) j and a[n—i1 (ii) i and b[m—i1a[i1 ifj=m (A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) either (i) or (ii) but not both (D) neither (i) nor (ii) 54. Given two arrays of numbers a1,...,a and b1,...,b where each number is 0 or 1, the fastest algorithm to find the largest span (i,j)such that a, + a,1 + ... + a = b, + b,1 + ... + b, or report that there is not such span, (A) Takes Q(3n) and c(2)time if hashing is permitted (B) Takes 0(n3) and c(n25)time in the key comparison model (C) Takes e(n)time and space (D) Takes o(J) time only if the sum of the 2n elements is an even number 55. Consider these two functions and two statements Si and S2 about them. mt workl(±nt *a, mt ±, mt j) mt work2(±nt *a, mt ±, mt j) mt x = a[i+2]; mt ti = a[j] = x+1; mt t2 = a[tl]; return a[i+2] — 3; a[j] = t2+1; return t2 — 3; Si: The transformation form worki to work2 is valid, i.e., for any program state and input arguments, work2 will compute the same output and have the same effect on program state as worki S2: All the transformations applied to worki to get work2 will always improve the performance (i.e reduce CPU time) of work2 compared to worki (A) Si is false and S2 is false (B) Si is false and S2 is true (C) Si is true and S2 is false (D) Si is true and S2 is true 56. Consider the following code written in a pass-by-reference language like FORTRAN and these statements about the code. subroutine swap(ix,iy) it = ix Li: ix=iy L2: iy=it end ia = 3 ib = 8 call swap (ia, ib+5) print , ia, ib end Si: The compiler will generate code to allocate a temporary nameless cell, initialize it to i3, and pass the address of the cell swap S2: On execution the code will generate a runtime error on line Li S3: On execution the code will generate a runtime error on line L2 S4: The program will print i3 and 8 S5: The program will print i3 and -2 Exactly the following set of statement(s) is correct: (A) Si and S2 (B) Si and S4 (C) S3 (D) Si and S5 57. Consider this C code to swap two integers and these five statements: the code void swap (mt *px, mt *py) { *px = *px - *py; *py = *px + *py; *px = *py - *px; } Si: will generate a compilation error S2: may generate a segmentation fault at runtime depending on the arguments passed S3: correctly implements the swap procedure for all input pointers referring to integers stored in memory locations accessible to the process S4: implements the swap procedure correctly for some but not all valid input pointers S5: may add or subtract integers and pointers. (A) Si (B) S2 and S3 (C) S2 and S4 (D) S2 and S5 58. Consider the following grammar: S - FR R — *5k. F - Id In the predictive parser table, M, of the grammar the entries M[S,idl and M[R,$1 respectively. (A) {S—FR} and {R—s} (B) {S—FR} and { } (C) {S—FR} and {R_*S} (D) {F — id} and {R — s} 59. Consider the following translation scheme. S - ER R *E{print(’*’);}Rs E — F+E{print(+);}F F — (S)id{print(id.value);} Here Id is a token that represents an integer and id.value represents the corresponding integer value. For an input 2*3+4,this translation scheme prints (A) 2*3+4 (B) 2*+34 (C) 2 3*4 (D) 2 3 4* 60. Consider the following C code segment. for (± — 0, i for (j=O; j if (±%2) x += (4*j + 5*±); y += (7 + 4*j); Which one of the following is false? (A) The code contains loop invariant computation (B) There is scope of common sub-expression elimination in this code (C) There is scope of strength reduction in this code (D) There is scope of dead code elimination in this code 61. The atomic fetch-and-set x, y instruction unconditionally sets the memory location x to 1 and fetches the old value of x n y without allowing any intervening access to the memory location x. consider the following implementation of P and V functions on a binary semaphore S. void P (binary_semaphore *s) unsigned y; unsigned * = &(s—>value);
do
fetch—and—set x, y;
while (y)
void V (binary_semaphore *s)
S—>value = 0;
Which one of the following is true?
(A) The implementation may not work if context switching is disabled in P
(B) Instead of using
fetch-and —set,
a pair of normal load/store can be used
(C) The implementation of V is wrong
(D) The code does not implement a binary semaphore
62. A CPU generates 32-bit virtual addresses. The page size is 4 KB. The processor has a
translation look-aside buffer (TLB) which can hold a total of 128 page table entries and is 4-
way set associative. The minimum size of the TLB tag is:
(A) 11 bits
(B) 13 bits
(C) 15 bits
(D) 20 bits
63. A computer system supports 32-bit virtual addresses as well as 32-bit physical addresses.
Since the virtual address space is of the same size as the physical address space, the
operating system designers decide to get rid of the virtual memory entirely. Which one of the
following is true?
(A) Efficient implementation of multi-user support is no longer possible
(B) The processor cache organization can be made more efficient now
(C) Hardware support for memory management is no longer needed
(D) CPU scheduling can be made more efficient now
64. Consider three processes (process id 0, 1, 2 respectively) with compute time bursts 2, 4
and 8 time units. All processes arrive at time zero. Consider the longest remaining time first
(LRTF) scheduling algorithm. In LRTF ties are broken by giving priority to the process with the
lowest process id. The average turn around time is:
(A) 13 units
(B) 14 units
(C) 15 units
(D) 16 units
65. Consider three processes, all arriving at time zero, with total execution time of
10, 20 and 30 units, respectively. Each process spends the first 20% of execution time doing
I/O, the next
70°h
of time doing computation, and the last 10°h of time doing I/O again. The
operating system uses a shortest remaining compute time first scheduling algorithm and
schedules a new process either when the running process gets blocked on I/O or when the
running process finishes its compute burst. Assume that all I/O operations can be overlapped
as much as possible. For what percentage of time does the CPU remain idle?
(A) 0%
(B)
1O.6°h
(C)
30.O°h
(D)
89.4°h
66. Consider the following snapshot of a system running n processes. Process
i
is holding
x,instances of a resource R,
1 n.
currently, all instances of R are occupied. Further, for all
I,
process
i
has placed a request for an additional y, instances while holding the x, instances it
already has. There are exactly two processes p and q such that =
Yq
= 0. Which one of the
following can serve as a necessary condition to guarantee that the system is not approaching
a deadlock?
(A)
min(xp,xq)
< max Yk (B) X + Xq mink pq Yk (C) max(xp,xq)>1
(D)
min(xp,xq)>1
67. Consider the relation account (customer, balance) where customer is a primary key and
there are no null values. We would like to rank customers according to decreasing balance.
The customer with the largest balance gets rank 1. ties are
not broke but ranks are skipped: if exactly two customers have the largest balance they each
get rank 1 and rank 2 is not assigned.
select A.customer, count(B.customer)
Queryl: from account A, account B
where A.balance <=B.balance group by A.customer select A.customer, 1+count(B.customer) Query2: from account A, account B where A.balance < B.balance group by A.customer Consider these statements about Queryl and Query2. 1. Queryl will produce the same row set as Query2 for some but not all databases. 2. Both Queryl and Query2 are correct implementation of the specification 3. Queryl is a correct implementation of the specification but Query2 is not 4. Neither Queryl nor Query2 is a correct implementation of the specification 5. Assigning rank with a pure relational query takes less time than scanning in decreasing balance order assigning ranks using ODBC. Which two of the above statements are correct? (A) 2 and 5 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 5 68. Consider the relation enrolled (student, course) in which (student, course) is the primary key, and the relation paid (student, amount) where student is the primary key. Assume no null values and no foreign keys or integrity constraints. Given the following four queries: Queryl:select student from enrolled where student in (select student from paid) Query2:select student from paid where student in (select student from enrolled) Query3:select E.student from enrolled E, paid P where E.student = P.student Query4:select student from paid where exists (select * from enrolled where enrolled.student = paid.student) Which one of the following statements is correct? (A) All queries return identical row sets for any database (B) Query2 and Query4 return identical row sets for all databases but there exist databases for which Queryl and Query2 return different row sets. (C) There exist databases for which Query3 returns strictly fewer rows than Query2 (D) There exist databases for which Query4 will encounter an integrity violation at runtime. 69. Consider the relation enrolled (student, course) in which (student, course) is the primary key, and the relation paid (student, amount) where student is the primary key. Assume no null values and no foreign keys or integrity constraints. Assume that amounts 6000, 7000, 8000, 9000 and 10000 were each paid by 20% of the students. Consider these query plans (Plan 1 on left, Plan 2 on right) to “list all courses taken by students who have paid more than x” enrolled paid enrolled paid 1’ 1’ Probe index Sequential on student scan, select amount > x
A disk seek takes 4ms, disk data transfer bandwidth is 300 MB/s and checking a tuple to see if
amount is greater than x takes lOps. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Plan 1 and Plan 2 will not output identical row sets for all databases
(B) A course may be listed more than once in the output of Plan 1 for some data bases
(C) For x = 5000, Plan 1 executes faster than Plan 2 for all databases
(D) For x = 9000, Plan I executes slower than Plan 2 for all databases.
70. The following functional dependencies are given:
AB
-*
CD,AF
-*
D,DE
-*
F,C
-*
G,F
-*
E,G
-*
A.
Which one of the following options is false?
(A)
{CF} ={ACDEFG}
(B)
{BG}
=
{ABCDG}
(C)
{AF} ={ACDEFG}
(D)
{AB} ={ABCDFG}
Common Data Questions:
Common Data for Questions 71, 72, 73:
The 2 vertices of a graph G corresponds to all subsets of a set of size n, for
n < 6. Two vertices of G are adjacent if and only if the corresponding sets intersect in exactly two elements. 71. The number of vertices of degree zero in G is: (A) 1 (B) n (C) n+1 (D)2 72. The maximum degree of a vertex in G is: (A) 2J (B) 2 2 (C) 23x3 (D) 2 1 73. The number of connected components in G is: (A) n (B) n+2 (C) 2/2 (D) Common Data for Questions 74, 75: Consider two cache organizations: The first one is 32 KB 2-way set associative with 32- byte block size. The second one is of the same size but direct mapped. The size of an address is 32 bits in both cases. A 2-to-i multiplexer has a latency of 0.6 ns while a kbit comparator has a latency of k/lO ns. The hit latency of the set associative organization is h1while that of the direct mapped one is h2. 74. The value of h1is: (A) 2.4 ns (B) 2.3 ns (C) 1.8 ns (D) 1.7 ns 75. The value of h2 is: (A) 2.4 ns (B) 2.3 ns (C) 1.8 ns (D) 1.7 ns Linked Answer Questions: Q.76 to Q85 Carry Two Marks Each Statement for Linked Answer Questions 76 & 77: A 3-ary max heap is like a binary max heap, but instead of 2 children, nodes have 3 children. A 3-ary heap can be represented by an array as follows: The root is stored in the first location, a[0], nodes in the next level, from left to right, is stored from a[1] to a[3]. The nodes from the second level of the tree from left to right are stored from a[4] location onward. An item x can be inserted into a 3-ary heap containing n items by placing x in the location a[n] and pushing it up the tree to satisfy the heap property. 76. Which one of the following is a valid sequence of elements in an array representing 3-ary max heap? (A) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9 (B) 9, 6, 3, 1, 8, 5 (C) 9, 3, 6, 8, 5, 1 (D) 9, 5, 6, 8, 3, 1 77. Suppose the elements 7, 2, 10 and 4 are inserted, in that order, into the valid 3- ary max heap found in the above question, Q.76. Which one of the following is the sequence of items in the array representing the resultant heap? (A) 10, 7, 9, 8, 3, 1, 5, 2, 6, 4 (B) 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 10, 9, 4, 5, 7, 6, 8, 2, 1, 3 (D) 10, 8, 6, 9, 7, 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 & 79: Barrier is a synchronization construct where a set of processes synchronizes globally i.e. each process in the set arrives at the barrier and waits for all others to arrive and then all processes leave the barrier. Let the number of processes in the set be three and S be a binary semaphore with the usual P and V functions. Consider the following C implementation of a barrier with line numbers shown on left. void barrier (void) 1: P(S); 2: process_arrived++; 3. V(S); 4: while (process_arrived !=3); 5: P(S); 6: process_left++; 7: if (process_left==3) 8: process_arrived = 0; 9: process_left = 0; 10: 11: V(S); The variables process_arrived and process_left are shared among all processes and are initialized to zero. In a concurrent program all the three processes call the barrier function when they need to synchronize globally. 78. The above implementation of barrier is incorrect. Which one of the following is true? (A) The barrier implementation is wrong due to the use of binary semaphore S (B) The barrier implementation may lead to a deadlock if two barrier in invocations are used in immediate succession. (C) Lines 6 to 10 need not be inside a critical section (D) The barrier implementation is correct if there are only two processes instead of three. 79. Which one of the following rectifies the problem in the implementation? (A) Lines 6 to 10 are simply replaced by process_arrived-- (B) At the beginning of the barrier the first process to enter the barrier waits until process_arrived becomes zero before proceeding to execute P(S). (C) Context switch is disabled at the beginning of the barrier and re-enabled at the end. (D) The variable process_left is made private instead of shared Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 & 81: A CPU has a 32 KB direct mapped cache with 128-byte block size. Suppose A is a two- dimensional array of size 512x512 with elements that occupy 8-bytes each. Consider the following two C code segments, P1 and P2. P1: for (i=0; i<512; i++) for (j=O; j<512; j++) x +=A[i] [j]; P2: for (i=O; i<512; i++) for (j=O; j<512; j++) x +=A[j] [±1; P1 and P2 are executed independently with the same initial state, namely, the array A is not in the cache and i,j,x are in registers. Let the number of cache misses experienced by P1 be M1 and that for P2 be 142. 80. The value of M1 is: (A) 0 (B) 2048 (C) 16384 (D) 262144 81. The value of the ratio (A) 0 (B)16 (C) (D) 16 Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 & 83: Consider the diagram shown below where a number of LAN5 are connected by (transparent) bridges. In order to avoid packets looping through circuits in the graph, the bridges organize themselves in a spanning tree. First, the root bridge is identified as the bridge with the least serial number. Next, the root sends out (one or more) data units to enable the setting up of the spanning tree of shortest paths from the root bridge to each bridge. Each bridge identifies a port (the root port) through which it will forward frames to the root bridge. Port conflicts are always resolved in favour of the port with the lower index value. When there is a possibility of multiple bridges forwarding to the same LAN (but not through the root port), ties are broken as follows: bridges closest to the root get preference and between such bridges, the one with the lowest serial number is preferred. 82. For the given connection of LANs by bridges, which one of the following choices represents the depth first traversal of the spanning tree of bridges? (A) Bi, B5, B3, B4, B2 (B) Bi, B3, B5, B2, B4 (C) Bi, B5, B2, B3, B4 (D) Bi, B3, B4, B5, B2 83. Consider the correct spanning tree for the previous question. Let host Hi send out a broadcast ping packet. Which of the following options represents the correct forwarding table on B3? (A) Hosts Hi, H2, H3, H4 (B) Ii 12 H5, H6, H9, HiO Host s Port H5,H6 1 H7, H8, H9, H1O,H11,H12 2 Hosts H3, H4 H5, H6, H9, H1O 1 H1,H2 4 H7, H8, Hil, H12 2 Hosts Port Hi, H2, H3, H4 3 H5, H7, H9, HiO 1 H7, H8, Hil, H12 4 (C) H7, H8, Hil, H12 2 Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 & 85: 84. Which one of the following grammars generates the language L = {a’ bi I)? (A) S - ACCB (B) S—aSSbab C — aCbab (C) S-ACCB S-ACCB (D) C—aCbE C—aCbH 85. In the correct grammar above, what is the length of the derivation (number of steps starring from S) to generate the string a/bm with I < m? (A) max(I,m)+2 (B) I+m+2 (C) I+m+3 (D) max(I,m)+3 Read the following instructions carefully: 1. All answers must be written only in the answer book provided 2. This question paper consists of TWO SECTIONS: A and B. 3. Section A consists of two questions of multiple-choice type. Question 1 consists of TWENTY- FIVE sub-questions of ONE mark each and Question 2 consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions of TWO marks each. 4. The answers to the multiple choice questions must be written only in the boxes provided in the two sheets of the answer book. 5. Answers to Section B should be started on a fresh page and should not be mixed with answers to Section A. Question numbers must be written legibly and correctly in the answer book. 6. Section B consists of TWENTY questsof[,IVE marks each. ANY FIFTEEN out of them have to answered. If more number of questions are attempted, score off the answers not to be evaluated, else only the first fifteen unscored will be considered strictly. 7. In all questions of 5 marks, write clearly the important steps in your answer. These steps carry partial credit. 8. There will be NO NEGATIVE marking. 9. No graph papers are required for any of questions. SECTION - A 1. This question consists of 25 (TWENTTY FIVE) sub-questions. Each sub-question carries ONE mark. The answers to these sub-questions MUST be written only in the appropriate boxes corresponding to the questions in the first page of the answer book. 1.1 An electron with velocity u is placed in an electric field E and magnetic field B. the force experienced by the electron is given by (a) -eE (b) -eu x B (c) -e(uxE+B) (d) -e(E+uxB) 1.2 A voltage waveform V(t) = 12t2 is applied across a 1H inductor for t = 0, with initial current through it being zero. The current through the inductor for t = 0 is given by (a) 12t (b) 24t (c) 12t3 (d) 4 t3 1.3 The circuit shown in Fig.1.3 uses an ideal opamp working with +5V and —5V power supplies. The output voltage V0 is equal to 1K (a) +5V ———-/v’ (b) -5V - ________ - T5V (c) +1V + -5V (d) -lv 1.4 Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt? (a) TRAP (b) INTR (c) RST7.5 (d) RST3 1.5 The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is (a) Class A (b) Class B (c) Class AB (d) Class C 1.6 The feedback factor for the circuit shown in Fig. below is: (a)100 (b)-2- (c) (d)-10 1.7 A 3-phase, 4-pole squirrel cage induction motor has 36 stator and 28 rotor slots. The number of phases in the rotor is: (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 8 1.8 The compensating winding in a dc machine (a) is located in armature slots for compensation of the armature reaction (b) is located on commutating poles for improving the commutation (c) is located on pole shoes for avoiding the flashover at the commutator surface (d) is located on poles shoes to avoid the sparking at the brushes. 1.9 In a constant voltage transformer (CVT), the output voltage remains constant due to (a) capacitor (b) input inductor (c) saturation (d) tapped windings 1.10 The phase sequence of a three-phase alternator will reverse if (a) the field current is reversed keeping the direction of rotation same (b) the field current remains the same but the direction of rotation is reversed (c) the field current is reversed arid the number of poles is doubled (d) the number of poles is doubled without reversing the field current 1.11 A 1.8° step, 4-phase stepper motor has a total of 40 teeth on 8 poles of stator. The number of rotor teeth for this motor will be (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 80 1.12 In a thermal power plant, the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using (a) H.P. steam (b) L.P. steam (c) direct heat in the furnace (d) flue gases 1.13 For given base voltage and base volt-amperes, the per unit impedance value of an element is x. What will be the per unit impedance value of this element when the voltage and volt-ampere bases are both doubled? (a) 0.5x (b) 2x (c) 4x (d)x 1.14 In an inverse definite minimum time, electromagnetic type over-current relay the minimum time feature is achieved because of (a) saturation of the magnetic circuit (b) proper mechanical design (c) appropriate time delay element (d) electromagnetic damping 1.15 Out of the considerations (a) to (d) listed below. (i) no distance limitation related to steady state stability (ii) no reactive power requirement from the system at the two terminals (iii) no substantial effect on fault level of the two systems at the terminals inspite of the interconnection (iv) no corona problems The considerations, which constitute advantages of HVDC transmission, are (a) all of the above (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) 1.16 In a 3-step distance protection, the reach of the three zones of the relay at the beginning of the first line typically extends up to (a) 100% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line (b) 8Cc/c of the first line, 5Q% of the second line and 2Cc/c of the third line (c) 8C’/c of the first line, 2Cc/c of the second line and 1C’/c of the third line (d) 50% of first line, 50% of second line and 20% of the third line. 1.17 A three phase semi-converter feeds the armature of a separately excited dc motor, supplying a non-zero torque. For steady state operation, the motor armature current is found to drop to zero at certain instances of time. At such instances, the voltage assumes a value that is (a) equal to the instantaneous value of the ac phase voltage (b) equal to the instantaneous value of the motor back emf (c) arbitrary (d) zero 1.18 A thyristorised, three phase, fully controlled converter feeds a dc load that draws a constant current. Then the input ac line current to the converter has (a) an rms value equal to the dc load current (b) an average value equal to the dc load current (c) a peak value equal to the dc load current (d) a fundamental frequency component, whose rms value is equal to the dc load current 1.19 Triangular PWM control, when applied to a three phase, BJT based voltage source inverter, introduces (a) low order harmonic voltages on the dc side (b) very high order harmonic voltages on the dc side (c) low order harmonic voltages on the ac side (d) very high order harmonic voltage on the dc side 1.20 Instrument transformers are known to introduce magnitude and phase errors in measurements. These are primarily due to (a) improper connections on the primary side (b) measurement errors inherent in the meter connected to the transformer secondary (c) open and short circuit parameters of the instrument transformers (d) None of the above 1.21 An analogue electronic circuit that measures rms value of the input voltage by averaging the square of the instantaneous voltage level, responds slowly to changes in the input signal due to (a) the “square” function built into the circuit (b) the “square-root” function built into the circuit (c) the averaging function built into the circuit (d) None of the above 1.22 Ratio of the rotor reactance X to the rotor resistance R for a two-phase servomotor (a) is equal to that of a normal induction motor (b) is less than that of a normal indüction motor (c) is greater than that of a normal induction motor (d) may be less or greater than that of a normal induction motor 1.23 Feedback control systems are (a) insensitive to both forward and feedback path parameter changes (b) less sensitive to feedback path parameter changes than to forward path parameter changes (c) less sensitive to forward-path parameter changes than to feedback path parameter changes (d) equally sensitive to forward and feedback path parameter changes 1.24 A unity feedback system has open loop transfer function G(s). The steady-state error is zero for (a) step input and type —1 G(s) (b) ramp input and type —1 G(s) (c) step input and type G(s) (d) ramp input and type —o G(s) 1.25 A linear time-invariant system initially at rest, when subjected to a unit-step input, gives a response y(t) = te_t,t > 0. The transfer function of the system is:
(a) 1 2
(b) 1 2
(c) S 2
(d) 1
2. This question consists of 25 (TWENTTY FIVE) sub-questions. Each sub-question carries TWO
marks. The answers to these sub-questions MUST be written only in the appropriate boxes
corresponding to the questions in the first page of the answer book.
2.1 A two-port device is defined by the following pair of equations:
i
= 2v +
v2
and ‘2 =
V1 + V2
Its impedance parameters
(z111z121z211z22)are
given by
(a) (2,1,1,1)
(b) (1,-1,-1,2)
(c) (1,1,1,2)
(d) (2,-1,-1,1)
2.2. The circuit shown in Fig.2.2 is equivalent to a load of
(a) (0.54+jO.313) ohms
(b) (4 — j2) ohms
(c) (4.54 — jl.69) ohms
(d) (4 + j2) ohms
2.3. The minimal product of sums function described by the K-map given in Fig. below
01 1 0 0
100 0
2.4. A diode whose terminal characteristics are related as ‘D =Is[-where Isis the
reverse saturation current and
VTi5
the thermal voltage (=25mV), is biased at =
2mA.
Its
dynamic resistance is:
(a) 25 ohms
(b) 12.5 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
2.5. In the circuit of Fig. below, the value of the base current I8will be
(a) 0.0 micro amperes
(b) 18.2 micro amperes
(c) 26.7 micro amperes
(d) 40.0 micro amperes
2.6. A dual slope analog-to-digital converters uses an N-bit counter. when the input signal
Va
is being integrated, the counter is allowed to count up to a value
(a) equal to
2N
—2
(b) equal to
2N
—1
(c) proportional to
Va
(d) inversely proportional to
Va
2.7. A 3-phase delta/star transformer is supplied at 6000 V on the delta-connected side. The
terminal voltage on the secondary side when supplying full load as 0.8 lagging power-factor is
415 V: The equivalent resistance and reactance drops for the transformer are la/c and Se/c
respectively. The turn’s ratio of the transformer is:
(a) 14
(b) 24
(c) 42
(d) 20
2.8. A 240 V dc series motor takes 40A when giving its rated output at 1500 rpm. Its
resistance is 0.3 ohms. The value of resistance which must be added to obtain rated torque at
1000 rpm is:
(a) 6 ohms
(b) 5.7 ohms
(c) 2.2 ohms
(d) 1.9 ohms
2.9. The power input to a 415V, 50 Hz, 6 pole, 3-phase induction motor running at
975 rpm is 40 kW. The stator losses are 1kW and friction and windage losses total 2 kW. The
efficiency of the motor is
(a)
92.5°h
(b)
90°h
(c)
91°h
(d) 88°h
2.10. A single-phase, 2000V alternator has armature resistance and reactance of 0.8 ohms
and 4.94 ohms respectively. The voltage regulation of the alternator at 100A load at 0.8
leading power-factor is:
(a)
7°h
(b)
-8.9°h
(c) 14°h
(d)
0°h
2.11. A permanent magnet dc commutator motor has a no load speed of 6000 rpm when
connected to a 120V dc supply. The armature resistance is 2.5 ohms and other losses may be
neglected. The speed of the motor with supply voltage of 60V developing a torque 0.5 Nm, is:
(a) 3000 rpm
(b) 2673 rpm
(c) 2836 rpm
(d) 5346 rpm
2.12. A transmission line has equal voltages at the two ends, maintained constant by two
sources. A third source is to be provided to maintain constant voltage (equal to end voltages)
at either the midpoint of the line or at 755 of the distance from the sending end. Then the
maximum power transfer capabilities of the line in the original case and the other two cases
respectively will be in the following ratios.
(a) 1:1:1
(b) 1:2:1
(c) 1:2:4
(d)1:4:16
2.13. The plug setting of a negative sequence relay is 0.2A. The current transformer ratio is
5:1. The minimum value of line-to-line fault current for the operation of the relay is
(a) 1A
(b) 1
A
(c) 1.732A
(d) 0.2
A
2.14. The incremental cost chaçaceristlIf two generators delivering 200 MW are as follows
= 2.0 + 0.01P1,.- = 1.6 + 0.21’2
dP1 dP2
For economic operation, the generations P1 and
P2
should be
(a)
P1
=
P2
= 100MW
(b)
P1
=
8OMW,P2
= 120MW
(c)
P1
= 200MW,
P2
=
0MW
(d)
P1
=
120MW, P2
=
80MW
2.15. The corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz is 1kW/km per phase. The
corona loss at 60 Hz would be
(a) 1kW/km per phase
(b) 0.83kW/km per phase
(c) 1.2kW/km per phase
(d) 1.13kW/km per phase
2.16. The severity of line-to-ground and three phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded
synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1.0 p.u. and
z1 =z2
=jO.lp.u.,z0 =jO.05p.u.for
the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral
grounding is:
(a) 0.0166 p.u.
(b) 0.05 p.u.
(c) 0.1 p.u.
(d) 0.15 p.u.
2.17. A three phase voltage source inverter supplies a purely inductive three phase load. Upon
Fourier analysis, the output voltage waveform is found to have an hth order harmonic of
magnitude ahtimes that of the fundamental frequency component
(ah < 1). The load current would then have an h-th order harmonic of magnitude (a) zero (b) ah times the fundamental frequency component (c) hahtimes the fundamental frequency component (d) ah lh times the fundamental frequency component 2.18. A step down chopper operates from a dc voltage source 4,and feeds a dc motor armature with a back emf Eb. From oscilloscope traces, it is found that the current increases for time tr,falls to zero over time t1,and remains zero for time t0, in every chopping cycle. Then the average dc voltage across the freewheeling diode is: (A) Vstr (Vstr +Ebtf) (B)(tr + tf + t0) (tr + tf + t0) (C) (Vstr +Ebto) Vstr +Eb (tf +t0) (D)(tr+tf+tO) - •. (t,+t+to) 2.19. A three phase, wound rotor induction motor is to be operated with slip energy recovery in the constant torque mode, when it delivers an output power F at slop s. then theoretically, the maximum power that is available for recovery at the rotor terminals, is equal to p0 p0.s (a) F (b) P0. (c) 1s (d) 1s 2.20. The two wattmeter method is used to measure active power on a three phase, three wire system. If the phase voltage is unbalanced, then the power reading is: (a) affected by both negative sequence and zero sequence voltages (b) affected by negative sequence voltages but not by zero sequence voltages (c) affected by zero sequence voltages but not by negative sequence voltages (d) not affected by negative or zero sequence voltages 2.21. If an ac voltage wave is corrupted with an arbitrary number of harmonics, then the overall voltage waveform differs from its fundamental frequency component in terms of (a) only the peak values (b) only the rms values (c) only the average values (d) all the three measures (peak, rms and average values) 2.22. The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is: 2s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 10 = 0 The number of roots in the right half of s-plane are: (a) zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 2.23. A unity feedback system has open-loop transfer function G(s) = 25 The peak overshoot in the step-input response of the system is approximately equal to: (a) 5°h (b) 1O°h (c) 15°h (d) 20°h 2.24. Maximum phase-lead of the compensator D(s) = ,is (a) 52 deg at 4 rad/sec (b) 52 deg at 10 rad/sec (c) 55 deg at 12 rad/sec (d) None of the answers is correct SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY qJtknof FIVE marks each. ANY FIFTEEN out of them have to be answered. If more number of quetions are attempted, score off the answers not be evaluated, else, only the first fifteen unscored answers will be considered. 3. Predict the current I in Fig. below in response to a voltage of 20Z0°V. The impedance values are given in ohms. Use the thevenin’s theorem. 4. (a) Show via the construction of a suitable Gaussian surface, that the capacitance of a spherical capacitor consisting of two concentric shells of radii a and b is given by ab C = 4,rs0 (b — a) where s0 is the free space permittivity. (b) A current 1 in the short conducting element shown in Fig.4 produces a flux density B at point 1. Determine the magnitude and the direction of the flux density vector at point 2. 5. A current amplifier has an input resistance of 1012, an output resistance of 10k12 and a current gain of 1000. It is feed by a current source having a source resistance of 10k12 and its output is connected to a i012 load resistance. Find the voltage gain and the power gain. 6. An active filter consisting of an op-amp, resistors R1,R2,R3 and two capacitors of value C each, has a transfer function 1 —s (R1 C) T(s)_ + 1 whereR=R111R2. ‘-7 RC) (RR3c2) If R1 = 2k12, R2 = .-k12, R3=200k12 and C = 0.1 pF, determine the centre frequency ak, gain A0 and the Q of the filter. 7. The counter shown in Fig. below is initially in state Q2 = 0,Q1 = 1,Q0 = 0.With reference to the CLK input, draw waveforms for Q2,Q1,Q0and P for the next three CLK cycles. 8. In a single-phase, three-winding transformer, the turns ratio for primary: secondary: tertiary windings is 20:4:1. With the lagging currents of 50A at a power factor of 0.6 in the tertiary winding, find the primary current and power- factor. 9. A belt driven dc shunt generator runs at 1500 rpm delivering 10k2, at 220V bus bars. The belt breaks, following which the machine operates as a motor drawing 2kW power. What will be its speed as a motor? The armature and field resistances are 0.25 ohms and 55 ohms respectively. Ignore armature reaction and assume the contact drop at each brush to be lv. 10. A 230V, 20 hp, 60 Hz, 6-pole, 3-phase induction motor driving a constant torque load at rated frequency, rated voltage and rated horse-power, has a speed of 1175 rpm and an efficiency of 92.1°h. Determine the new operating speed if a system disturbance causes 10°h drop in voltage and 6°h drop in frequency. Assume that friction, windage and stray power losses remain constant. 11. A 2300 V, 3-phase synchronous motor driving a pump is provided with a line ammeter and a field rheostat. When the rheostat is adjusted such that the ac line current is minimum. The ammeter reads 8.8A. What is the power being delivered to the pump, neglecting losses? How should the rheostat be adjusted so that the motor operates at 0.8 leading power factor? How many kVARs is the motor supplying to the system at this new power factor? 12. A 275 kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 400 km lossless line has following parameters: x=0.05 ohms/km, line charging susceptance y=3.0 micro-Siemens/km. (a) Calculate the receiving end voltage on open circuit using justifiable assumptions. (b) What load at the receiving end will result in a flat voltage profile on the line? (c) If the flat voltage profile is to be achieved at 1.2 times the loading in (b), what will be the nature and quantum of uniformly distributed compensation required? 13. In a 3-bus system, Gauss load flow method is to be used for finding the switched capacitor compensation required to maintain the voltage at bus 2 equal to 1.0 p.u. the data for the system is as follows: Line data: Z12 =Z13 =Z31 =jO.1 p.u.Neglect line charging. Bus data: Bus No. Bus Type Specifications 1 Slack V1 (1+jO)p.u. Load:P2 +jQ2 =(0.4+jO.2)p.u. 2 PV V2 (magnitude) = 1.Op.u. 3 PQ Load: P3 +jQ3 = (0.3+jO.15)p.u. All data are on common base values. With the help of one iteration of load flow, explain how you will achieve the stated objective. 14. For the configuration shown in Fig.14, the breaker connecting a large system to bus 2 is initially open. The system 3-phase fault level at bus 3 under this condition is not known. After closing the system breaker, the 3-phase fault level at bus 1 was found to be 5.0 p.u. What will be the new 3-phase fault level at system bus 3 after the interconnection? All per unit values are on common bases. Perfault load currents are neglected and prefault voltages are assumed to be 1.0 p.u. at all buses. IDle en System Eg = 1.0 pU. XT= 0.2 D.U. XLine = 0.3 pU. Xd 0.2 D.U. 15. A synchronous generator, having a reactance of 0.15 p.u., is connected to an infinite bus through two identical parallel transmission lines having reactance of 0.3 p.u. each. In steady state, the generator is delivering 1 p.u. Power to the infinite bus. For a three-phase fault at the receiving end of one line, calculate the rotor angle at the end of first time step of 0.05 seconds. Assume the voltage behind transient reactance for the generator as 1.1 p.u. and infinite bus voltage as 1.0 p.u. Also indicate how the accelerating powers will be evaluated for the next time step if the breaker clears the fault (a) at the end of an interval (b) at the middle of an interval 16. 16. A single phase voltage source of magnitude 4and frequency o (rad/s) is connected to an inductance L through an antiparallel back-to-back pair of thyristors. The forward and reverse conducting thyristors are fired at an angle of a from the positive going and negative going zero crossings of the supply voltage respectively, in each cycle. Obtain an expression for the inductor current in each cycle for a given value of x. The voltage drop across the thyristors, when either of them is in conclusion, may be assumed to be negligible. 17. A dc motor with armature resistance Ra5 fed from a step down chopper in the continuous mode, and operates at some known speed and known excitation current. The motor current rises from .tmin to .tmax in the ON period 7,of the chopper; and drops from Imax to .tmin in the OFF period T of the same circuit. Both the rise and fall of the current may be assumed to be approximately linear. What is the average power loss in the machine armature? 18. For perfectly balanced operation a certain three phase ac power electronic circuit generates odd harmonic currents of order five and seven in the three phases of the ac mains. Identify which of these harmonics form a positive-sequence system, and which form a negative-sequence system. 19. A three-phase load operates with balanced voltages applied to its terminals, and draws balanced currents. The potential coil of a moving coil wattmeter is connected from R to Y terminals of the load. The current coil of the meter is connected in series with phase B. by appropriate derivation, show that the quantity indicated by this wattmeter is proportional to the reactive power drawn by the load. 20. Open-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback system is: G(s) = G1(s).e = ___________ s(s+1)(s+2) Given: G1 (ja = 1 when a = 0.466. (a) Determine the phase margin when VD = 0. (b) Comment in one sentence on the effect of dead time on the stability of the system. (c) Determine the maximum value of dead time VD for the closed-loop system to be stable. 21. A unity feedback system has open-loop transfer function K(s+5) G(s)= ;K=0 s(s+2) (a) Draw a rough sketch of the root locus plot; given that the complex roots of the characteristic equation move along a circle. (b) As K increases, does the system become less stable? Justify your answer. (c) Find the value of K (if it exists) so that the damping of the complex closed loop poles i

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Tamilnadu 12th Standard Free Tutorial

Tamilnadu 12th Standard Electrostatics Physics
What is electrostatics?

Electrostatics is the branch of physics. It deals with static electric charges or charges at rest.

What is the analagous of electrostatis field?

The charges in a electrostatic field are analogous to the masses in a gravitational field.

Do charges posses potential energy? Why?

Yes. Charges do have forces acting on them. So, charges possess potential energy
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Human Physiology Tutorial:
What is physiology?

Physiology is the study of functioning of organs and organ systems

What is the purpose of a physiological activity?

All physiological activities are aimed at maintenance of homeostasis, living and reproduction
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Human Physiology Tutorial:
What is physiology?

Physiology is the study of functioning of organs and organ systems

What is the purpose of a physiological activity?

All physiological activities are aimed at maintenance of homeostasis, living and reproduction
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Electrostatics Physics Lesson 1 Free Tutorial:
What is electrostatics?

Electrostatics is the branch of physics. It deals with static electric charges or charges at rest.

What is the analagous of electrostatis field?

The charges in a electrostatic field are analogous to the masses in a gravitational field.

Do charges posses potential energy? Why?

Yes. Charges do have forces acting on them. So, charges possess potential energy
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Human Physiology Tutorial:
What is physiology?

Physiology is the study of functioning of organs and organ systems

What is the purpose of a physiological activity?

All physiological activities are aimed at maintenance of homeostasis, living and reproduction
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Electrostatics Physics Lesson 1 Free Tutorial:
What is electrostatics?

Electrostatics is the branch of physics. It deals with static electric charges or charges at rest.

What is the analagous of electrostatis field?

The charges in a electrostatic field are analogous to the masses in a gravitational field.

Do charges posses potential energy? Why?

Yes. Charges do have forces acting on them. So, charges possess potential energy