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GATE Exam Computer Science Practice Exam

The minimum number of cards to be dealt from an arbitrarily shuffled deck of 52 cards to
guarantee that three cards are from some same suit is
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 12
1.2 The determinant of the matrix
2 0 0 0
8 1 7 2.
2 0 2 0
9 0 6 1
(a) 4
(b) 0
(C) 15
(d) 20
2.17
80.
19. We wish to construct a 5 tree with fan-out (the number of pointers per node) equal to 3
for the following set of key values:
80, 50, 10, 70, 30, 100, 90
Assume that the tree is initially empty and the values are added in the order given.
(a) Show the tree after insertion of 10, after insertion of 30, and after insertion of 90.
Intermediate trees need not be shown.
(b) The key values 30 and 10 are now deleted from the tree in that order. Show the tree after
each deletion.
Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
(a) A device
(b) Timer
(c) Scheduler process
(d) Power failure
2.18 Consider a machine with 64 MB physical memory and a 32-bit virtual address space. If
the page size is 4KB, what is the approximate size of the page table?
(a) 16 MB
(b) 8 MB
(c) 2 MB
(d) 24 MB
2.19 Consider Peterson’s algorithm for mutual exclusion between two concurrent processes i
and j. The program executed by process is shown below.
repeat
flag[i] =true;
turn=j;
while (P) do no—op;
Enter critical section, perform actions, then
exit critical section
Flag[i] =false;
Perform other non—critical section actions. Until false;
For the program to guarantee mutual exclusion, the predicate P in the while loop
should be
(a) flag[j]=true and turn=i
(b) flag[j]=true and turn=j
(c) flag[i]=true and turn=j
(d) flag[i]=true and turn=i
2.20 R(A,B,C,D) is a relation. Which of the following does not have a lossless join, dependency
preserving BCNF decomposition?
(a)A-B,B-CD
(b)A-B,B-C,C-D
(c) AB – C, C – AD
(d) A – BCD
2.21 Which of the following relational calculus expressions is not safe?
(a)
{tu R (t[A1
=
u[A1)A -s
E
R2
(t[A1 =
s[A1)J
(b)
{tfru
E
R1 (u[A1
=
R
(t[A1 =
s[A1
A
s[A1
=
u[A1))}
(c) {t—i(tE
R1)}
(d)
{tuE R1
(t[A1 =
ULA1)ASE R2
(t[A1 =
s[A1)}
2.22 Consider a relation geq which represents “greater than or equal to”, that is, (x,y)E geq
only if y
y is deleted
(b) A tuple (z,w) with z
>
x is deleted
S3: else return _______________
}
12. Consider a weighted undirected graph with vertex set V = {ni,n2,n3,n4,n5,n6} and edge
set
E={(n i,n2,2),(ni,n3,8),(n i,n6,3),(n2,n4,4),(n2,n5,12),(n3,n4,7),(n4,n5,9), (n4,n6,4)}. The
third value in each tuple represents the weight of the edge specified in the tuple.
(a) List the edges of a minimum spanning tree of the graph.
(b) How many distinct minimum spanning trees does this graph have?
(c) Is the minimum among the edge weights of a minimum spanning tree unique overall
possible minimum spanning trees of a graph?
(d) Is the maximum among the edge weights of a minimum spanning tree unique over all
possible minimum spanning trees of a graph?
13. Consider the following grammar with terminal alphabet {a,(,),,*}and start symbol E. The
production rules of the grammar are:
E – aA
E – (E)
A – +E
A *E
A-E
(a) Compute the FIRST and FOLLOW sets for E and A.
(b) Complete the LL(i) parse table for the grammar.
14. The syntax of the repeat-until statement is given by the following grammar S – repeat S1
until E
Where E stands for expressions, S and S1 stand for statement. The non-terminals S and S1
have an attribute code that represents generated code. The non- terminal E has two
attributes. The attribute code represents generated code to evaluate the expression and store
its truth value in a distinct variable, and the attribute varName contains the name of the
variable in which the truth value is stored? The truth-value stored in the variable is 1 if E is
true, 0 if E is false.
Give a syntax-directed definition to generate three-address code for the repeat- until
statement. Assume that you can call a function newlabel( ) that returns a distinct label for a
statement. Use the operator’’ to concatenate two strings and the function gen(s) to generate
a line containing the string s.
15. (a) Remove left-recursion from the following grammar:
S – Sal Sb I a I b
(b) Consider the following grammar:
S – aSbSl bSaS Ic
Construct all possible parse trees for the string abab. Is the grammar ambiguous?
16. Two concurrent processes P1 and P2 want to use two resources Ri and R2 in a
mutually exclusive manner. Initially, Ri and R2 are free. The programs executed
by the two processes are given below.
Program for P1:
51: While (Ri is busy) do no-op;
S2: Set Ri – busy;
S3: While (R2 is busy) do no-op;
S4: Set R2 – busy;
S5: Use Ri and R2;
S6: Set Ri – free;
S7: Set R2 – free;
Program for P2:
Qi: While (Ri is busy) do no-op;
Q2: Set Ri – busy;
Q3: While (Ri is busy) do no-op;
Q4: Set Ri – busy;
Q5: Use Ri and R2;
Q6: Set R2 – free;
Q7: Set Ri – free;
(a) Is mutual exclusion guaranteed for Ri and R2? If not, show a possible interleaving of the
statements of P1 and P2 such that mutual exclusion is violated (i.e., both P1 and P2 use Ri or
R2 at the same time).
(b) Can deadlock occur in the above program? If yes, show a possible interleaving of the
statements of P1 and P2 leading to deadlock.
(c) Exchange the statements Q1 and Q3 and statements Q2 and Q4. Is mutual exclusion
guaranteed now? Can deadlock occur?
17. Consider a disk with the 100 tracks numbered from 0 to 99 rotating at 3000 rpm. The
number of sectors per track is 100. the time to move the head between two successive tracks
is 0.2 millisecond.
(a) Consider a set of disk requests to read data from tracks 32, 7, 45, 5 and 10. Assuming
that the elevator algorithm is used to schedule disk requests, and the head is initially at track
25 moving up (towards larger track numbers), what is the total seek time for servicing the
requests?
(b) Consider an initial set of 100 arbitrary disk requests and assume that no new disk requests
arrive while servicing these requests. If the head is initially at track 0 and the elevator
algorithm is used to schedule disk requests, what is the worst case time to complete all the
requests?
18. Consider the relation examinee (regno, name, score), where regno is the primary key to
score is a real number.
(a) Write a relational algebra using (fJ,G,p,x) to find the list of names which appear more than
once in examinee.
(b) Write an SQL query to list the
regno
of examinees who have a score greater than the
average score.
(c) Suppose the relation
appears (regno, centr_code)
specifies the center where an examinee
appears. Write an SQL query to list the
centr code
having an examinee of score greater than
(a) Suppose you are given an empty B+-tree where each node (leaf and internal) can
store up to 5 key values. Suppose values i,2, iO are inserted, in order, into the tree, Show the
tree pictorially
(i) After 6 insertions, and
(ii) After all iO insertions
Do NOT show intermediate stages.
(b) Suppose instead of splitting a node when it is full, we try to move a value to the left
sibling. If there is no left sibling, or the left sibling is full, we split the node. Show the tree
after values, i, 2, , 9 have been inserted. Assume, as in (a) that each node can hold up to 5
keys.
(c) In general, suppose a B+-tree node can hold a maximum of
m
keys, and you insert a long
sequence of keys in increasing order. Then what approximately is the average number of keys
in each leaf level node.
(i) In the normal case, and
(ii) With the insertion as in (b).
16. Consider a bank database with only one relation
transaction (transno, acctno, date, amount)
The amount attribute value is positive for deposits and negative for withdrawals.
(a) Define an SQL view TP containing the information.
(acctno, Ti.date, T2.amount)
for every pair of transactions Ti, T2 such that Ti and T2 are transaction on the same account
and the date of T2 is the date of Ti.
(b) Using only the above view TP, write a query to find for each account the minimum balance
it ever reached (not including the 0 balance when the account is created). Assume there is at
most one transaction per day on each account, and each account has had atleast one
transaction since it was created. To simply your query, break it up into 2 steps by defining an
intermediate view V.
1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE mark each. For
each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives, A, B, C and D are provided. Choose
the most appropriate alternative and darken its bubble on the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS) against the corresponding sub-question number using a soft HB pencil. Do not darken
more than one bubble for any sub-question. Do not use the ORS for any rough work. You may
use the answer book for any rough work, if needed.
1.1 Consider the following statements:
S1: The sum of two singular n x n matrices may be non-singular
S2: The sum of two n x n non-singular matrices may be singular.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) 51 and S2 are both true
(b) 51 is true, S2 is false
(c) 51 is false, S2 is true
(d) 51 and S2 are both false
1.2 Consider the following relations:
Ri (a,b) iff (a+b) is even over the set of integers
R2 (a,b) iff (a+b) is odd over the set of integers
R3 (a,b) iff a.b > 0 over the set of non-zero rational numbers
R4 (a,b) iff a — bi 2 over the set of natural numbers
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Ri and R2 are equivalence relations, R3 and R4 are not
(b) Ri and R3 are equivalence relations, R2 and R4 are not
(c) Ri and R4 are equivalence relations, R2 and R3 are not
(d) Ri, R2, R3 and R4 are all equivalence relations
1.3 Consider two well-formed formulas in prepositional logic
El: P —iP E2: (Pi—iP)v(–iPiP)
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Fl is satisfiable, F2 is valid
(b) Fl unsatisfiable, F2 is satisfiable
(c) Fl is unsatisfiable, F2 is valid
(d) Fl and F2 are both satisfiable
1.4 consider the following two statements:
S1: {o2’Hn (- i)isa regular language
S2:
{ominom÷n rn
1 and
n
i} is a regular language
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only Si is correct
(b) Only S2 is correct
(c) Both Si and S2 are correct
(d) None of Si and S2 is correct
1.5 Which of the following statements s true?
(a) If a language is context free it can always be accepted by a deterministic push-down
automaton
(b) The union of two context free languages is context free
(c) The intersection of two context free languages is context free
(d) The complement of a context free language is context free
1.6 Given an arbitary non-deterministic finite automaton (NFA) with N states, the maximum
number of states in an equivalent minimized DFA is at least
(a) N2
(b) 2N
(c) 2N
(d) N!
1.7 More than one word are put in one cache block to
(a) exploit the temporal locality of reference in a program
(b) exploit the spatial locality of reference in a program
(c) reduce the miss penalty
(d) none of the above
1.8 Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Virtual memory implements the translation of a program’s address space into physical
(b) Virtual memory allows each program to exceed the size of the primary memory
(c) Virtual memory increases the degree of multiprogramming
(d) Virtual memory reduces the context switching overhead
1.9 A low memory can be connected to 8085 by using
(a) INTER
(b) RESET IN
(c) HOLD
1.10 Suppose a processor does not have any stack pointer register. Which of the following
statements is true?
(a) It cannot have subroutine call instruction
(b) It can have subroutine call instruction, but no nested subroutine calls
(c) Nested subroutine calls are possible, but interrupts are not
(d) All sequences of subroutine calls and also interrupts are possible
1.11 Given the following Karnaugh map, which one of the following represents the minimal
Sum-Of-Products of the map?
(a)
xy+y’z
(b)
wx’y’+xy+xz
(c)
w’x+y’z+xy
(d)xz+y
1.12 A processor needs software interrupt to
(a) test the interrupt system of the processor
(b) implement co-routines
(c) obtain system services which need execution of privileged instructions
(d) return from subroutine
1.13 A CPU has two modes-privileged and non-privileged. In order to change the mode from
privileged to non-privileged
(a) a hardware interrupt is needed
(b) a software interrupt is needed
(c) a privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt) is needed
(d) a non-privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt is needed
1.14 Randomized quicksort is an extension of quicksort where the pivot is chosen randomly.
What is the worst case complexity of sorting n numbers using randomized quicksort?
(a) 0(n)
(b) 0(n log n)
(c) 0(n2)
(d) 0(n!)
1.15 Consider any array representation of an n element binary heap where the elements are
stored from index 1 to index n of the array. For the element stored at index i of the array (I (-
n), the index of the parent is
(1+1)
(a) i-i
(b) L]
(c) r.i
(d) 2
Nwx
00 01 11 10
YZ
00 0 X 0 X
01 X 1 X 1
11 0 X 1 0
10 0 1 X 0
1.16 Let
f(n)
=
n2
logn and
g(n)
=
n(logn)1°
be two positive functions of n. Which of
the following statements is correct?
(a) f(n) = O(g(n) and g(n) O(f(n))
(b) g(n) = O(f(n) and f(n) O(g(n))
(c) f(n)=O(g(n)) and g(n) O(f(n))
(d) f(n)=O(g(n)) and g(n) =O(f(n))
1.17 The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and
adjusting the code and date in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is
called
(a) Assembly
(b) Parsing
(c) Relocation
(d) Symbol resolution
1.18 Which of the following statements is false?
(a) An unambiguous grammar has same leftmost and rightmost derivation
(b) An LL(1) parser is a top-down parser
(c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
(d) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k
1.19 Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2, …. r to be run on a uniprocessor
machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms will result in the maximum
throughput?
(a) Round-Robin
(b) Shortest-Job-First
(c) Highest-Response-Ratio-Next
(d) First-Come-First-Served
1.20 Where does the swap space reside?
(a) RAM
(b) Disk
(c) ROM
(d) On-chip cache
1.21 Consider a virtual memory system with FIFO page replacement policy. For an arbitrary
page access pattern, increasing the number of page frames in main memory will
(a) always decrease the number of page faults
(b) always increase the number of page faults
(c) sometimes increase the number of page faults
(d) never affect the number of page faults
1.22 Which of the following requires a device driver?
(a) Register
(b) Cache
(c) Main memory
(d) Disk
1.23 Consider a schema R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies A – B and C – D. Then the
decomposition of R into R1 (AB) and R2(CD) is
(a) dependency preserving and lossless join
(b) lossless join but not dependency preserving
(c) dependency preserving but not lossless join
(d) not dependency preserving and not lossless join
1.24 Suppose the adjacency relation of vertices in a graph is represented in a table
Adj (X,Y). Which of the following queries cannot be expressed by a relational
algebra expression of constant length?
(a) List of all vertices adjacent to a given vertex
(b) List all vertices which have self loops
(c) List all vertices which belong to cycles of less than three vertices
(d) List all vertices reachable from a given vertex
1.25 Let r and s be two relations over the relation schemes R and S respectively, and
let A be an attribute in R. then the relational algebra expression
0Aa
(rXJ
5)
is
always equal to
(a)
oA_a(r)
(b) r
(c)
0Aa
(r)N s
(d) None of the above
2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For
each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives, A,B, C and D are provided. Choose the
most appropriate alternative and darken its bubble on the Objective Response Sheet (ORS)
against the corresponding sub-question number using a soft HB pencil. Do not darken more
than one bubble for any sub-question. Do not use the CR5 for any rough work. You may use
the answer book for any rough work, if needed.
2.1 How many 4-digit even numbers have all 4 digits distinct?
(a) 2240
(b) 2296
(c) 2620
(d) 4536
2.2 Consider the following statements:
S1: There exists infinite sets A, B, C such that An(BuC) is finite.
S2: There exists two irrational numbers x and y such that (x+y) is rational.
Which of the following is true about 51 and S2?
(a) Only 51 is correct
(b) Only S2 is correct
(c) Both 51 and S2 are correct
(d) None of 51 and S2 is correct
2.3 Let
f:
A – B be a function, and let E and F be subsets of A. Consider the following
Si:f(EuF)=f(E) uf(F)
S2:f(EnF)=f(E) nf(F)
Which of the following is true about Si and S2?
(a) Only Si is correct
(b) Only S2 is correct
(c) Both Si and S2 are correct
(d) None of Si and S2 is correct
2.4 Consider a DFA over ={a,b}accepting all strings which have number of a’s divisible by 6
and number of b’s divisible by 8. What is the minimum number of states that the DFA will
have?
(a) 8
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 48
2.5 Consider the following languages:
Li ={wwwE {a,b}*}
L2 =
{wwR w {a, b}*, wR
is the reverse of w}
L3
=
{021
i is an integer)
= {o2 i is an integer)
Which of the languages are regular?
(a) Only Li and L2
(b) Only L2, L3 and L4
(c) Only L3 and L4
(d) Only L3
2.6 Consider the following problem X.
Given a Turing machine M over the input alphabet , any state q of M
And a word w
E*,
does the computation of M on w visit the state q?
Which of the following statements about X is correct?
(a) X is decidable
(b) X is undecidable but partially decidable
(c) X is undecidable and not even partially decidable
(d) X is not a decision problem
2.7 Which is the most appropriate match for the items in the first column with the items in the
second column
X. Indirect Addressing I. Array implementation
Y. Indexed Addressing II. Writing re-locatable code
Z. Base Register Addressing III. Passing array as parameter
(a) (X, III) (Y, I) (Z, II)
(b) (X, II) (Y, III) (Z, I)
(c) (X, III) (Y, II) (Z, I)
(d) (X, I) (Y, III) (Z, II)
2.8 The 2’s complement representation of is hexadecimal is
(a) ABE (b) DBC (c) DE5 (d) 9E7
2.9 Consider the circuit given below1th initial state Qo =1, Q = Q2 = 0. The state of the circuit
is given by the value 4Q2 + 2Q1 + Q0 –
Clock
Which one of the following is the correct state sequence of the circuit?
(a) 1,3,4,6,7,5,2
(b) 1,2,5,3,7,6,4
(c) 1,2,7,3,5,6,4
(d) 1,6,5,7,2,3,4
2.10 Consider the following data path of a simple non-pilelined CPU. The registers A, B, A1,
A2, MDR, the bus and the ALU are 8-bit wide. SP and MAR are 16-bit registers. The MUX is of
size 8 x (2:1) and the DEMUX is of size 8 x (1:2). Each memory operation takes 2 CPU clock
cycles and uses MAR (Memory Address Register) and MDR (Memory Date Register). SP can be
decremented locally.
How many CPU clock cycles are needed to execute the “push r” instruction?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
2.11 Consider an undirected unweighted graph G. Let a breadth-first traversal of G be done
starting from a node r. Let d(r,u) and d(r,v) be the lengths of the shortest paths from r to u
and v respectively in G. If u is visited before v during the breadth-first traversal, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) d(r,u)d(r,v)
(c) d(r,u) 4 and x < 6, where x is an integer (c) x<5 not (x=5) (d) None of the above SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY FIFTEEN questions. If more number of questions are attempted, score off the answer not to be evaluated, else only the first fifteen unscored answers will be considered. 1. A multiset is an unordered collection of elements where elements may repeat any number of times. The size of a multiset is the number of elements in it counting repetitions. (a) What is the number of multisets of size 4 that can be constructed from n distinct elements so that at least one element occurs exactly twice? (b) How many multisets can be consctructed from n distinct elements? 2. Let S be a set of n elements {1, 2, ...., n} and G a graph with 2 vertices, each vertex corresponding to a distinct subset of S. Two vertices are adjacent if the symmetric difference of the corresponding sets has exactly 2 elements. Note: The symmetric difference of two sets R1 and R2 is defined as u R2J R1 (a) Every vertex in G has the same degree. What is the degree of a vertex in G? (b) How many connected components does G have? 3. (a) Construct as minimal finite state machine that accepts the language, over {0,1}, of all strings that contain neither the substring 00 nor the substring 11. (b) Consider the grammar aSAb A- bA A- C Where 5, A are non-terminal symbols with S being the start symbol; a,b are terminal symbols and c is the empty string. This grammar generates strings of the form a’bfor some i, j 0, where i and j satisfy some condition. What is the condition on the values of i and j? 4. A pushdown automaton (pda) is given in the following extended notation of finite state diagrams: _______ 2.s/s 1.s/1.s 1,1.s/s The nodes denote the states while the edges denote the moves of the pda. The edge labels are of the form d, s/s’where d is the input symbol read and s,s’are the stack contents before and after the move. For example the edge labeled 1, s/1.s denotes the move from state q0 to q0in which the input symbol 1 is read and pushed to the stack. (a) Introduce two edges with appropriate labels in the above diagram so that the resulting pda accepts the language {x2xR x E {0, 1} *, xR denotes revese of x}, by empty stack. (b) Describe a non-deterministic pda with three states in the above notation that accept the language {o1m fl < m < 2n) by empty stack 4. Design a logic circuit to convert a single digit BCD number to the number modulo six as follows (Do not detect illegal input): (a) Write the truth table for all bits. Label the input bits I, 1, .... With I as the least significant bit. Label the output bits R1, R2, .... With R1 as the least significant bit. Use 1 to signify truth. (b) Draw one circuit for each output bit using, altogether, two two-input AND gates, one two- input gate and two NOT gates. 5. Consider the 8085 instruction IN 09H stored as follows: And the following incomplete timing diagram for the instruction: T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6 T7 T8 T9 TA A15-A8 AD7 C>
IO/M
(a) Write the contents of the boxes, A, B, C and D in hexadecimal in your answer sheet. Do
not draw any pictures.
(b) Write the state of both ALE and
RD
pins at time units Ti, T2, T3 and T4.
(c) How do you generate the signal that tells the peripheral to put the data on the bus?
Answer by completing the following statement in your answer book:
By combining signals
ii. Consider the following 8085 program segment, where registers B and C contain BCD
values:
Si: MVI A, 99H
MVI D, OOH
SUB C
DAA
S2: JC S3
Memory Address Machine Code
3050 DA
3051 09
MOV E, A
MVI A, 99H
SUB E
MOV E, A
JZ S4
MVI D, FFH
JMP S4
S3: INC A
DAA
MOV E, A
S4
(a) For the two pairs (B = 44, C = 25) and (B = 33, C = 46) at Si,
(i) Find the values in register A when control reaches S2.
(ii) Find the values in registers D and E when control reaches S4.
(b) What, in general, is the value of D and E as a function of B and C when control reaches S4.
6. An instruction pipeline has five stages where each stage takes 2 nanoseconds and all
instructions use all five stages. Branch instructions are not overlapped, i.e., the instruction
after the branch is not fetched till the branch instruction is completed. Under ideal conditions.
(a) Calculate the average instruction execution time assuming that 2O% of all instruction
executed are branch instructions. Ignore the fact that some branch instructions may be
conditional.
(b) If a branch instruction is a conditional branch instruction, the branch need not be taken. If
the branch is not taken, the following instructions can be overlapped. When 8O/c of all branch
instructions are conditional branch instructions, and 5Q% of the conditional branch
instructions are such that the branch is taken, calculate the average instruction execution
time.
7. Suppose a stack implementation supports, in addition to PUSH and POP, an operation
REVERSE, which reverses the order of the elements on the stack.
(a) To implement a queue using the above stack implementation, show how to implement
ENQUEUE using a single operation and DEQUEUE using a sequence of 3 operations.
(b) The following postfix expression, containing single digit operands and arithmetic operators
+ and *, is evaluated using a stack.
52*34+52**+
Show the contents of the stack.
(i) After evaluating 5 2 * 3 4 +
(ii) After evaluating 5 2 * 3 4 + 5 2
(iii) At the end of evaluation.
8. Consider the line y = -2-x, where n and m are positive integers.
(a) If mq — np < 0, then is the point (p,q) above the line, below the line, or on the line? (b) Complete the following function, that returns true if the line segment with endpoints (p,q) and (r,s) intersects the line y = -2-x, by writing the line number and the content of each box in your answer book. 1: function clash (m, n, p. q, r, 5: integer): Boolean; 2: begin 3: clash = false; 4: if(m*q_n*p) lOthenclash : =true; 5: If(m*s — n * r) I IC then clash : = true; 6: if(m*q_n*p) IOand(m*s_n*r)I IOthenclash:=true; 7: if(m*q_n*p) Ioand(m*s_n*r)I Iothenclash:=true; 8: end; 9. Suppose you are given arrays p[1 N] and q[1 N] both uninitialized that is, each location may contain an arbitrary value), and a variable count, initialized to 0. Consider the following procedures set and iset: set (i) { count = count + 1; q [count] = i; p[i] = count; } is_set(i) { if (p[i] != 0 or p[i] > count)
return false;
if (q[p[i]] i)
return false;
return true;
}
(a) Suppose we make the following sequence of calls:
set (7); set (3); set(9);
After these quence of calls, what is the value of count, and what do q, q, q, p,
p and p contain?
(b) Complete the following statement “The first count elements of ________ contain values i
such that set ( ____________) has been called”.
(c) Show that if set (i) has not been called for some i, then regardless of what p[i] contains,
is_set (i) will return false.
10. A recursive program to compute Fibonacci numbers is shown below. Assume you are also
given an array f[O m] with all elements initialized to 0.
fib(n) {
if (n > M) error 0;
if ( n==0) return 1;
if(n ==1) return 1;
if(I I) (1)
return I I (2)
t = fib(n — 1) + fib (n — 2);
I I (3)
return t;
}
(a) Fill in the boxes with expressions/statements to make fibQ store and reuse computed
Fibonacci values. Write the box number and the corresponding contents in your answer book.
(b) What is the time complexity of the resulting program when computing fib(n)?
11. An array contains four occurrences of 0, five occurrences of 1, and three occurre3nces of 2
in any order. The array is to be sorted using swap operations (elements that are swapped
need to be adjacent).
(a) What is the minimum number of swaps needed to sort such an array in the worst case?
(b) Give an ordering of elements in the above array so that the minimum number of swaps
needed to sort the array is maximum.
12. Consider the following program is pseudo-Pascal syntax.
program main;
varx: integer;
procedure Q [z:integer);
begin
z: z + x;
writel n (z)
end;
procedure P (y:integer);
varx: integer;
begin
x: y + 2;
writeln(x)
end;
begin
x:=5;
P(x);
writeln(x)
end.
What is the output of the program, when
(a) The parameter passing mechanism is call-by-value and the scope rule is static scooping?
(b) The parameter passing mechanism is call-by-reference and the scope rule is dynamic
scooping?
13. Consider the syntax directed translation scheme (SDTS) given in the following. Assume
attribute evaluation with bottom-up parsing, i.e., attributes are evaluated immediately after a
reduction.
E – E1 * T {E.val = E1. val * T. val}
E-T{E.val =T.val}
T – F – T1 {T.val = F. val – T1. val}
T-F{T.val=F.val}
F – 2 {F. val =2}
F – 4 {F. val =4}
(a) Using this SDTS, construct a parse tree for the expression
4_2_4*2
and also compute its E.val.
(b) It is required to compute the total number of reductions performed to parse a given input.
Using synthesized attributes only, modify the SDTS given, without changing the grammar, to
find E.red, the number of reductions performed while reducing an input to E.
14. (a) Fill in the boxes below to get a solution for the readers-writers problem, using a single
binary semphore, mutex (initialized to 1) and busy waiting. Write the box numbers (1,2 and
3), and their contents in your answer book.
mt R = 0, W = 0;
Reader ( ) {
Li: wait (mutex);
If (W ==0) {
R = R +1;
I I (1)
}
else {
I I (2)
goto Li;
}
./* do the read */
wait (mutex)
R = R –
signal (mutex);
}
Writer () {
L2: wait(mutex);
If(I I) { (3)
signal (mutex);
goto L2;
}
W=i;
signal (mutex);
/*do the write*/
wa it( m utex)
W = 0;
signal (mutex);
(b) Can the above solution lead to starvation of writers?
E1 and E2 are events in a probability space satisfying the following constraints:
• Pr(E1) = Pr(E2)
• Pr(E1uE2)=1
• E1 and E2 are independent
The value of Pr(E1), the probability of the event E1, is
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
2.3. Let S=ilog21 and
100
andT=f
xlog2xdx
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) S>T
(b) S=T
(c) S T
(d) 2S < T 2.4. A polynomial p(x) satisfies the following: p(1) = p(3) = p(5) = 1 p(2) = p(4) = -1 The minimum degree of such a polynomial is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2.5. A relation R is defined on the set of integers as x Ry iff (x+y) is even. Which of the following statements is true? (a) R is not an equivalence relation (b) R is an equivalence relation having 1 equivalence class (c) R is an equivalence relation having 2 equivalence classes (d) R is an equivalence relation having 3 equivalence classes 2.6. Let P(S) denotes the powerset of set S. Which of the following is always true? (a) P(P(S))=P(S) (b) P(S) nP(P(S)) = {Ø} (c) P(S) nS = P(S) (d) S P(S) 2.7. Let a, b, c, d be propositions. Assume that the equivalence a -* (b V-b) and b -* c hold. Then the truth-value of the formula (a A b) — (a A c) v d is always (a) True (b) False (c) Same as the truth-value of b (d) Same as the truth-value of d 2.8. What can be said about a regular language L over {a} whose minimal finite state automation has two states? (a) L must be {aIn is odd} (b) L must be {aIn is even} (c) L must be {aI0} (d) Either L must be {aIn is odd}, or L must be {aI n is even} 2.9. Consider the following decision problems: (P1) Does a given finite state machine accept a given string (P2) Does a given context free grammar generate an infinite number of stings Which of the following statements is true? (a) Both (P1) and (P2) are decidable (b) Neither (P1) nor (P2) are decidable (c) Only (P1) is decidable (d) Only (P2) is decidable 2.10. The simultaneous equations on the Boolean variables x, y, z and w, x+y+z= 1 xy = 0 xz + w = 1 xy+ W=0 have the following solution for x, y, z and w, respectively: (a) 0100 (b) 1101 (c) 1011 (d)1000 2.11. Which functions does NOT implement the Karnaugh map given below? 0 x 0 0 0 x 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 x 0 0 (a) (w+x)y (c) (w+x)(W+y)(+y) (b) xy+yw (d) None of the above 2.12. The following arrangement of master-slave flip flops has the initial state of P. Q as 0, 1 (respectively). After the clock cycles the output state P. Q is (respectively), (a) 1, 0 (b) 1, 1 (c) 0, 0 (d) 0, 1 2.13. A graphics card has on board memory of 1 MB. Which of the following modes can the card not support? (a) 1600 x 400 resolution with 256 colours on a 17 inch monitor (b) 1600 x 400 resolution with 16 million colours on a 14 inch monitor (c) 800 x 400 resolution with 16 million colours on a 17 inch monitor (d) 800 x 800 resolution with 256 colours on a 14 inch monitor 2.14. Consider the values of A = 2.0 x i03° B = -2.0 x i03°, C = 1.0, and the sequence X: = A + B X: = X + C Y:= A + c Y:= Y + B Executed on a computer where floating point numbers are represented with 32 bits. The values for X and Y will be (a) X = 1.0, Y = 1.0 (c) X = 0.0, Y = 1.0 (b) X = 1.0, Y = 0.0 (d) X = 0.0, Y = 0.0 2.15. Suppose you are given an array s[1...n] and a procedure reverse (s,i,j) which reverses the order of elements in a between positions i and j (both inclusive). What does the following sequence do, where 1 < k < n: reverse (5, 1, k); reverse (5, k + 1, n); reverse (5, 1, n); (a) Rotates s left by k positions (b) Leaves s unchanged (c) Reverses all elements of s (d) None of the above 2.16. Let LASTPOST, LASTIN and LASTPRE denote the last vertex visited in a postorder, inorder and preorder traversal. Respectively, of a complete binary tree. Which of the following is always tree? (a) LASTIN = LASTPOST (b) LASTIN = LASTPRE (c) LASTPRE = LASTPOST (d) None of the above 2.17. Consider the following functions f(n) = 3n g (n) = 2JIog2 h(n) = n! Which of the following is true? (a) h(n) is 0 (f(n)) (b) h(n) is 0 (g(n)) (c) g(n) is not 0 (f(n)) (d) f(n) is 0(g(n)) 2.18. Let G be an undirected connected graph with distinct edge weight. Let emaxbe the edge with maximum weight and emjn the edge with minimum weight. Which of the following statements is false? (a) Every minimum spanning tree of G must contain emjn (b) If emax is in a minimum spanning tree, then its removal must disconnect G (c) No minimum spanning tree contains emax (d) G has a unique minimum spanning tree 2.19. Lt G be an undirected graph. Consider a depth-first traversal of G, and let T be the resulting depth-first search tree. Let u be a vertex in G and let v be the first new (unvisited) vertex visited after visiting u in the traversal. Which of the following statements is always true? (a) {u,v} must be an edge in G, and u is a descendant of v in T (b) {u,v} must be an edge in G, and v is a descendant of u in T (c) If {u,v} is not an edge in G then u is a leaf in T (d) If {u,v} is not an edge in G then u and v must have the same parent in T 2.20. The value of j at the end of the execution of the following C program mt incr (mt i) static mt count = 0; count = count + i; return (count); main () mt i,j; for (i = 0; i <=4; i++) j = incr(i); is (a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 2.21. Given the following expression grammar: EE*FIF+EIF F - F - I id which of the following is true? (a) * has higher precedence than + (b) - has higher precedence than * (c) + and — have same precedence (d) + has higher precedence than * 2.22. Suppose the time to service a page fault is on the average 10 milliseconds, while a memory access takes 1 microsecond. Then a 99.99% hit ratio results in average memory access time of (a) 1.9999 milliseconds (b) 1 millisecond (c) 9.999 microseconds (d) 1.9999 microseconds 2.23. Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock prevention scheme? (a) Release all resources before requesting a new resource (b) Number the resources uniquely and never request a lower numbered resource than the last one requested. (c) Never request a resource after releasing any resource (d) Request and all required resources be allocated before execution. 2.24. Given the following relation instance xYz 142 153 163 322 Which of the following functional dependencies are satisfied by the instance? (a) XY-)ZandZ-Y (b) YZ-XandY-Z (c) YZ-XandX-)Z (d) XZ-YandY-X 2.25. Given relations r(w,x) and s(y,z), the result of select distinct w,x from r, s is guaranteed to be same as r, provided (a) r has no duplicates and s is non-empty (b) r and s have no duplicates (c) s has no duplicates and r is non-empty (d) r and s have the same number of tuples The number 43 in 2’s complement representation is (a) 01010101 (b) 11010101 (c) 00101011 (d) 10101011 1.6 To put the 8085 microprocessor in the wait state (a) lower the HOLD input (b) lower the READY input (c) raise the HOLD input (d) raise the READY input 1.7 Comparing the time Ti taken for a single instruction on a pipelined CPU with time T2 taken on a non-pipelined but identical CPU, we can say that (a) Ti = T2 (b) Ti > T2
(c) Ti value=5; 2: using uninitialized pointers
Z: char *p; *p’a’; 3. lost memory is:
(a) X—1 Y—3 Z-2
(b) X—2 Y—1 Z-3
(C) X—3 Y—2 Z-1
(d) X—3 Y—1 Z-2
1.12 The most appropriate matching for the following pairs
X: depth first search 1: heap
Y: breadth-first search 2: queue
Z: sorting 3: stack
is:
(a) X—1 Y—2 Z-3
(b) X—3 Y—1 Z-2
(c) X—3 Y—2 Z-1
(d) X—2 Y—3 Z-1
1.13 Consider the following nested representation of binary trees: (X Y Z) indicates Y and Z
are the left and right sub stress, respectively, of node X. Note that Y and Z
may be NULL, or further nested. Which of the following represents a valid binary
tree?
(a) (1 2 (4 5 6 7))
(b) (1 (2 3 4) 5 6) 7)
(c) (1 (2 3 4)(5 6 7))
(d) (1 (2 3 NULL) (4 5))
1.14 Let s be a sorted array of n integers. Let t(n) denote the time taken for the most efficient
algorithm to determined if there are two elements with sum less than 1000 in s. which of the
following statements is true?
(a) t (n) is 0(1)
(b) n t(n) n log2 n
(c) n log2 n t(n)
(d) t(n) =
1.15 Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to
(a) multiple variables having the same memory location
(b) multiple variables having the same value
(c) multiple variables having the same identifier
(d) multiple uses of the same variable
1.16 Assume that objects of the type short, float and long occupy 2 bytes, 4 bytes and 8
bytes, respectively. The memory requirement for variable t, ignoring alignment
considerations, is
(a) 22 bytes
(b) 14 bytes
(c) 18 bytes
(d) 10 bytes
1.17 The number of tokens in the following C statement
printf(”i=%d, &%i”,i,&i);
is
(a) 3
(b) 26
(c) 10
(d) 21
1.18. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input
string? The input is assumed to be scanned in left to right order.
(a) Leftmost derivation
(b) Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse
(c) Rightmost derivation
(d) Rightmost derivation traced out in reverse
1.19. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch
between processes?
(a) General purpose registers
(b) Translation look-aside buffer
(c) Program counter
(d) All of the above
1.20. Let m…m be mutexes (binary semaphores) and P …. P be processes.
Suppose each process P[i] executes the following:
wait (m[i];wait (m[(i+1) mode 4]);
release (m[i]); release (m[(i+1)mod 4]);
This could cause
(a) Thrashing
(c) Starvation, but not deadlock
(d) None of the above
1.21. B -trees are preferred to binary trees in databases because
(a) Disk capacities are greater than memory capacities
(b) Disk access is much slower than memory access
(c) Disk data transfer rates are much less than memory data transfer rates
(d) Disks are more reliable than memory

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GATE Exam Pharmaceutical Practice Exam

5. The starting material for the synthesis of ALPRAZOLAM is
(A) 3-amino-5-bromoacetophenone
(B) 2-amino-5-chlorobenzophenone
(C) 2-amino-5-bromoacetophenone
(D) 3-amino-5-chlorobenzophenone
6. Simplification of Morphinan system gave one BENZOMORPHAN derivative
(A) Pentazocin
(B) Pethidine
(C) Levorphanol
(D) Buprenorphine
7. A metabolite of SPIRONOLACTONE is
(A) Aldosterone
(B) Canrenone
(C) Corticosterone
(D)Pregnenolone
8. The IUPAC name for NAPROXEN is
(A) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napththyl)-acetic acid
(B) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napththyl)-acetic acid
(C) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napththyl)-propionic acid
(D) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napththyl)-propionic acid
9. The metabolic function of Riboflavin involves the following
(A) FMN and FAD
(C) AMP and ATP
(D) Retine and Retinine
10. X-ray spectral lines
Ka
doublet arises from transition of electrons from
(A) M shell to K shell
(B) L shell to K shell
(C) L shell to M shell
(D) M shell to L shell
11. The method of expressing magnetic field strength is
(A) cycles/sec
(B) pulses/sec
(C) debye units
(D)gauss
12. A solvent used in NMR studies is
(A) chloroform
(B) acetone
(C) carbontetrachloride
(D) methanol
13. A widely accepted detector electrode for pH measurement is
(A) platinum wire
(B) glass electrode
(C) Ag-AgCI electrode
(D) lanthanum fluoride
14. Commercial production of citric acid is carried out by the microbial culture of
(A) Fusarium moniliformi
(B) Rhizopus nigricans
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Candida utilis
15. For thermophilic microorganisms, the minimum growth temperature required is
(A) 20°C
(B) 37°C
(C) 45°C
(D)65°C
16. Obligatory anaerobes
(A) can tolerate oxygen and grow better in its presence
(B) do not tolerate oxygen and die in its presence
(C) can grow in oxygen levels below normal
(D) can grow in presence of atmospheric oxygen
17. Plasmid is a
(A) macromolecule involved in the protein synthesis
(B) circular piece of duplex DNA
(C) a hybrid DNA that is formed by joining pieces DNA
(D) endogenous substance secreted by one type of cell
18. Lactose intolerance is because of the lack of
(A) acid phosphatase
(B) lactate dehydrogenase
(C) galactose-1-phosphate-uridyl transferase
(D) amylase
19. Synthesis of UREA takes place exclusively in
(A) kidney
(B) liver
20. A term which describes a cofactor that is finally bound to an apoenzyme is
(A) holoenzyme
(B) prosthetic group
(C) coenzyme
(D) transferase
21. How many parts of 1O% ointment be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get
12% ointment?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D)6
22. The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the
preparation of mucoadhesives is,
(A) oleic acid
‘.‘7
(B) tween-80
(C) glycerol
(D) propylene glycol
23. One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India is
(A) Director General of Health Services
(B) Government Analyst
(C) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council
(D) Director General of Indian Veterinary Research Institute
24. The Schedule in Drugs and Cosmetics Act that deals with the requirements and guidelines
for clinical trials, import and manufacture of new drugs is
(A) Schedule ‘0’
(B) Schedule ‘M’
(C) Schedule ‘F’
(D)Schedule ‘Y’
25. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix
tablets is
(A) H.P.M.C
(B) C.A.P
(C) Polyethylene
(D) Carnauba Wax
26. A drug which causes pink to brownish skin pigmentation within a few weeks of the
initiation of therapy is
(A) itraconazole
(B) clofazimine
(C) lomefloxacin
(D) neomycin
27. The risk of Digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of
(A) triamterene
(B) lidocaine
(C) captopril
(D) hydrochlorthiazide
28. An agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases
coronary blood supply is
(A) nitroglycerine
(B) nifedipine
(C) timolol
(D) isosorbide mononitrate
29. An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritie
and peptic ulcer is
(A) Campylobacterjejuni
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Helicobacter Pylon
(D) Giardia lamblia
30. A 5HTID receptor agonist useful in migraine is
(A) sumatriptan
(B) ketanserin
(C) ergotamine
(D)methysergide
Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each.
31. At present, different species of Papaver such as P. bracteatum and P. orientale are being
cultivated instead of P.somniferum because they contain
(A) more of morphine
(B) less of morphine
(C) only codeine
(D) only thebaine
32. Guggulipid, a resin is
(A) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing multifunctional compound
(±) gossypol
(B) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for the treatment of
dermatoses
(C) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since ancient time
(D) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a mixture of sterols
including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione
33. In nitrofurantoin synthesis, 5-nitrofurfuraldehyde diacetate is treated with one of the
following intermediate in presence of CH3COOH+H2S04+C2H5OH
(A) hydantoin
(B) 1-5-diamino hydantoin
(C) 1-3-diamino hydantoin
(D) 1-amino-hydantoin
34. 4-hydroxy-3-hydroxymethyl benzaldehyde is treated with acetic anhydride and then kept
with ether solvent, t-butyl cyanide and acetic acid for ten days. Resulting compound is
reduced with LiAIH4 in tetrahydrofuran. The final product is
(A) isoprenaline
(B) dobutamine
(C) salbutamol
(D)oriciprenaline
35. 2-iminothiazolidine is treated with phenyloxirane to get a drug used in roundworm
infection is
(A) piperazine
(B) tetramisole
(C) thiabendazole
(D)levamisole
36. Thiamine hydrochloride on treatment with alkaline potassium ferricyanide gives
(A) thymochrome with fluorescence
(B) oxythiamine with golden yellow colour
(C) neopyrithiamine with orange yellow colour
(D) tiochrome with blue fluorescence
37. A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form a
multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid
layers is
(A) prodrugs
(B) liposomes
(C) osmotic pumps
(D) nanoparticles
38. Unless otherwise stated in the individual monograph of the pharmacopoeia, in the
disintegration test for enteric coated tablets, first the dissolution is carried out in
(A) 0.1 M HCI
(B) phosphate buffer
(C) water
(D) 0.1 MH2SO4
39. What is the proportion of NaCI required to render a 1.S% solution of drug isotonic with
blood plasma? The freezing point of 1% w/v solution of drug is -0.122°C and that of NaCI is
-0.576°C
(A) 0.65%
(B) 0.585%
(C) 0.9%
(D)0.5%
40. JR Spectra appear as dips in the curve rather than maxima as in UV-Visible spectra
because it is a plot of
(A) % Absorbance against Wave number.
(B) % Transmittance against Concentration
(C) % Absorbance against Concentration
(D) Transmittance against Wave number.
41. ESR is applied to only those substances showing paramagnetism which is due to
the magnetic moment of
(A) neutrons
(B) protons
(C) paired electrons
(D) unpaired electrons
81. What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?
(A) 0.455 moles/litre
(B) 0.25 moles/litre
(C) 0.0455 moles/litre
(D) 0.10 moles/litre
82. What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?
(A) 0.026 moles/litre
(B) 0.0026 moles/litre
(C) 0.03 moles/litre
(D) 0.053 moles/litre
Data for questions 83 to 85:
In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage from
containing olive oil, vitamin A and water.
This section consists of TWENTY questions (EC3-EC22) of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY
FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each
question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts
of a question must appear together).
3. Write your inferences in one or two words only
(a) Two different samples of aloes are dissolved separately in water. 2 ml of the above
solutions are treated separately with 2 ml Bromine water
(i) A pale yellow precipitate with violet supernatant liquid is seen
(ii) A pale yellow precipitate with no violet supernatant liquid is seen
(b) A crude drug sample consisting of dried leaflets gave a positive Borntrager’s test
(c) When an air-dried latex is dissolved in water and treated with ferric chloride solution — a
red colour develops.
10. List the five important components in mass spectrometer.
11. In the assay of PYRIDOXINE HYDROCHLORIDE I.P.
(a) Name the solvent used for dissolution of sample
(b) Name the inorganic reagent which is added subsequently
(c) What is the reason for its addition?
(d) Name the tirant used.
(e) Give the structure of the final product.
1.22. The R-W coefficient test is used to evaluate
(a) Antibiotic activity
(b) Sterility of packaging material
(c) Nature of organism in bacterial infection
(d) Bactericidal activity
1.23. Diclofenac tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate has been administered to a
patient. Where do you except the drug to be released?
(a) Stomach
(b) Oral cavity
(c) Small intestine
(d) Liver
1.24. A microscopic examination of a culture isolate revealed spherical bodies with a smooth
outline growing in long chains. Identify the micro organism.
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Rhizopus stolonifer
(d) Bacillus subtilis
17. Five common advices that are given to patients during administration of certain drugs are
given below. Choose the appropriate drug [only on each] from the list.
(a) Avoid milk products and Milk of magnesia half an hour before or after taking the medicine.
(b) Vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine should not be taken.
(c) Follow regular eating habits, especially immediately before and after taking this medicine.
(d) Do not worry about the reddishdiscolouration in the urine, sweat and saliva
during the treatment.
(e) Take with an antacid.
(i) Disprin (ii) Rifampicin (iii) Isoniazid (iv)Ampicillin
(v) Doxycycline (vi) L-dopa (vii)Ibuprofen (viii) Rantidine
(ix) Insulin (x) Cetirizine
2.4. The ring structures present in the alkaloids listed below are given in (a) — (d). Match
them.
(1) Codeine (a) Phenanthrene
(2) Ergotamine (b) Indole
(c) Quinoline
(d) Iso-quinoline
9. (a) Define [Answer each in one or two sentences only]
(a) Palisade ratio (b) Stomatal number (c) Stomatal index
(d) Vein islet number (e) Vein islet termination number
10. (a) Name the types of Stomata present in the following medicinal plants:
(i) Digitalis purpurea leaves (ii) Datura stramonium leaves
(iii) Cassia acutifolia leaves (iv) Mentha piperita
(b) Give the murexide test for detecting purine derivatives.
11. (a) How Benzodiazepines produce claming effect?
(b) How anxiolytic activity can be correlated?
(c) Why presence of 3(-OH) group confers shorter duration of action?
(d) Why intravenous solution of diazepam cause precipitation when mixed with
aqueous solution?
(e) What is the clinical use of Adenosine?
2.11. For the following potentiometric titrations indicator electrode used is given from
(a) to (d). Match them.
(1) Acid base (a) Silver electrode
(2) Complexometry (b) Glass electrode
(c) Platinum electrode
(d) Mercury-Mercury electrode
40. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is
(A) Venlafaxine
(B) Selegiline
(C) Phenelzine
(D)Amoxapine
41. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which
hypolipidemic agent should not be prescribed?
(A) Clofibrate
(5) Cholestyramine
(C) Lovastatin
(D)Niacin
42. In the study of enzyme kinetics,
Vmax
is said to be attained when
(A) there is an excess of free enzyme as compared to the substrate
(B) virtually all of the enzyme is present as the enzyme-substrate complex and concentration
of the free enzyme is vanishingly small
(C) the maximum velocity of the reaction in the presence of low substrate concentration
(D) when the concentration of free enzyme equals that of the enzyme-substrate complex
43. Serum sample of a patient shows elevated levels of y—glutamyl transferase. The
patient could be suffering from
(A) Kidney disorder (B) Liver disease
(C) Parkinson’s disease (D) Myocardial infraction
44. Acidfast organisms are seen in the sputum of a 48-year old alcoholic man. A test
to confirm whether he needs long term multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis is:
(A) Chest X-ray
(B) Ziehel-Neelsen stain of the sputum
(C) Sputum cytology
(D) Mycobacterial cultures of the sputum
45. The distinguishing features in IR spectra between propionaldehyde and acetone is
(A) Weak-CH stretching and out of plane bending in propionaldehyde
(B) Keto group in acetone
(C) Two methyl groups in acetone
(D) – CH2 group in pionaldehyde
46. Nephelometric measurements are most sensitive for
(A) Clear solution (B) Concentrated solution
(C) Thick suspensions (D) Very dilute suspensions
47. The number of peaks shown by diethyl ether in an NMR spectrum are
(A) Four (B) Two (C) One (D)Five
48. The half-life for a zero order reaction is calculated using
(A) t1 = 0.693/k
(B) t1 = 2.303/k
(C) t1 = 1/ak
(D) t1 = a/2k
49. The biological half-life of procaine in a patient was 35 minutes and its volume of
distribution was estimated to be 60 L. The total clearance rate of Procaine is
(A) 1.188L/min
(B) 0.115L/min
(C) 11.5L/min
(D)5.75L/min
50. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the packing of the powder is
called as
(A) Porosity
(B) True density
(C) Granular density
(D) Bulk density
51. A co-solvent used in the preparation of parenteral products is:
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Dimethyl acetamide (D) Phenol
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.
52. In mass spectroscopy, positively charged ions can be produced by
(P) Heating of the sample
(Q) Bombarding the sample with high energy electrons
(R) Bombarding the sample with high energy protons
(S) Chemical ionization
(A) Q, S (B) Q, R (C) P, R (D)P, S
53. A plastisizer and a high boiling point solvent used in the preparation of nial
lacquers are
(P) Butyl stea rate (Q) Ethyl lactate (R) Ethyl alcohol (S) Acetone
(A) P, Q (B) Q, S (C) R, S (D)Q, R
54. Two of the following attributes are true for describing the mechanism of action of
Thiabendazole.
(P) Neuromuscular blocking causing spastic paralysis
(Q) Blocks the response of the Ascaris muscle to ACH, causins flaccid paralysis in the worms
(R) Inhibits the Helminth specific enzyme fumarate reductase
(5) Arrest nematode cell divisions in metaphase by interfering with microtubule
assembly
(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, S (D)Q, R
55. The colour and flavour of Saffron are due to —
(P) Crocin (Q) Crocetin (R) Safranal
(5) Crepenyic acid
(A) R, S (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)Q, P
56. Predict the two impurities which are likely to be present in Glipizide
(P) 5-methyl-N-[2-(4-sulphamoyl phenyl) enthyl] pyrazine-2-carboxamide.
(Q) 5-methyl-N-[2-(2-sulphamoyl phenyl) enthyl] pyrazine-2-carboxamide.
(R) Cyclohexanamine
(S) Cyclohexane
(A) P, R (B) P, Q (C) R, Q (D) R, S
57. Calcipotriene, a synthetic Vitamin D3 analogue has the following attributes
(P) Pronounced antirachitic activity
(Q) Inhibits epidermal cell proliferation and enhances cell differentiation
(R) Used as a topical application in the treatment of moderate plaque psoriasis
(S) Effect on calcium metabolism is 200 times more than Ergocalciferol
(A) Q, R (B) P, Q (C) R, S (D)Q, S
58. Insulin when released from the pancreatic 3 cells
(P) Can sequester blood glucose by forming a complex with it.
(Q) gets fully conjugated with glucuronic acid immediately, to be released upon suitable
stimuli in normal health.
(R) Acts on the transporter molecules to facilitate glucose movement across the cell
membranes.
(S) Increases storage of glucose to glycogen in the liver.
(A) P, R (B) R, S (C) P. S (D)Q, S
Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct
combination among the alternatives A, B, C and D.
59.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Drugs Group II Titrants used in IP assays
(P) Ascorbic acid (1) TBAH
(Q) Pyridoxine
HCI (2) Iodine
(R) Dapsone (3) HCIO4
(S) Fluorouracil (4) Sodium nitrite
60.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Umbelliferous
fruit Group II Diagnostic character
(P) Fenel (1) Wavy scierenchyma
(Q) Indian Dill (2) Branched and unbranched vittae
(R) Coriander (3) Reticulaterly lignified parenchyma
(S) Anise (4) Lateral ridges with vascular bundles
61.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Enzyme systems responsible for phase 2 conjugation
Group II Types
pathways
(P) UDP — glucuronosyl transferase (1) N-methylation
(Q) ATP-sulfurylase & APS-phosphokinase (2) Sulphate
conjugation
(R) Acly synthatase & transacetylase (3) Glucuronidation
(5) ATP-methionine adenosine transferase (4) Amino acid
conjugation
62.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Drugs Group II Titrants used in IP assays
(P) Ascorbic acid (1) TBAH
(Q) Pyridoxine
HCI (2) Iodine
(R) Dapsone (3) HCIO4
(S) Fluorouracil (4) Sodium nitrite

42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may
oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be
(A) shielded
(B) shifted
(C) hydrogen bonded
(D) deshielded
43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it
should undergo
(A) evaporation
(B) condensation
(C) nebulisation
(D) precipitation
44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves
(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions
(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase
(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly
(D) block thiamine transport
45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that
(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation
(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in
(A) very low density lipoproteins
(B) low density lipoproteins
(C) cholesterol
(D) high density lipoproteins
47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is
(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new
RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission
(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization
(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors
(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot
i d
48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which
contain
(A) multi-layered tissues or cells
(B) well defined particles which can be counted
(C) oil globules
(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured
49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is
(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal
schizolysigenous oil glands
(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains
(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil
(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows
50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid
(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template
(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-
RNA
(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid
(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the
ribosome
51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a
(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin
(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of
hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses
(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin
(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of
hyperimmune serum of horses
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.
52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies
(P) organic content of the drug
(Q) mineral matter in the drug
(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.
(S) woody matters present in the drug
(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S
53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons
(P) Acetaldehyde
(R) Formaldehyde
(S) Benzene
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S
54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include
(P) topical atropine
(Q) topical pilocarpine
(R) oral acetazolamide
(S) oral pilocarpine
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by
(Q) light scatter decay
(R) Karl-Fischer method
(5) JR spectrophotometry
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are
(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u
m

(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule
(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction
(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group
(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q
57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are
(P) slow localization in target tissue
(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information
(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information
(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are
(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins
(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables
(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite
(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight
(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S
Group I
Group II
(Examples)
(P) Binder  (1) Acacia
(Q) Insoluble lubricant  (2) Light mineral oil
(R) Film coating material  (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
(5) Direct compression
diluent  (4) Microcrystalline cellulose
(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4
(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3
(C) P-4 Q-3  R-2 S-1
(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1
61.
Group I
Group II
(JR Detectors )
(Composition)
(P) Thermocouple  (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni
(Q) Pyroelectric
Detector  (2) Bi-Sb
(R) Golay cells  (3) Xenon
(5) Thermistor  (4) Triglycine sulphate
(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1
(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2
62
Group I
Group II
(Alkaloid )
(Ring system)
(P) Coniine  (1) Isoquinoline
(Q)
Papaverine  (2) Pyridine-Piperidine
(R) Anabasine  (3) Yohimbane
(S) Reserpine  (4) Piperidine
(A) P – 4 Q – 3 R – 2 S – 1
(B) P – 2 Q – 4 R – 3 S – 1
(C) P – 3 Q – 4 R – 1 S – 2
(D) P – 2 Q – 1 R – 1 5 – 3
63.
Group I
Group II
(Immunoglobulins
(Actions)
[Ig])
(P) IgG  (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic
(Q) IgA  (2) Antiallergic
(R) 1gM  () .[eutralises toxins
(S) IgE  (4) Antimicrobial
(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2
(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3
(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2
(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2
64
Group I
Group II
(Antibiotics)
(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)
(P) Streptomycin  (1) Bacillus cereus
(Q)
Erythromycin  (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis
(R) Gentamycin  (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(S) Tetracycline  (4) Micrococcus luteus
(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4
(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1
(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4
(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1
Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each
question from among the options A, B, C and D.
Data for questions 66 to 68:
Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical
screening.
(A) P
(C) P
Group I
(Synthetic
Group II
estrogtenic_drugs_
(Methods of synthesis)
)
(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl
(P) Ethinyl
chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +
Cd4
(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard
(Q) Dienoestrol
reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated
with alcoholic KOH
(R) Chlorotrianisine  (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent
removal of water
(5) Stilboestrol  (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide
Group I
Group II
(Immunosuppressants
(Mechanism of action)
)
(P) Azathioprine  (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells
(Q) Tacrolimus  (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further
conversion inhibits purine metabolism
(R) Glucocorticoids  (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin
(5) Cyclophosphamide  (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells
66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is
(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin
(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin
(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin
(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin
67. Microscopical character of trichomes is
(A) unicellular, warty
(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells
(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells
(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells
68. The drug gives positive
(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test
(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test
Data for questions 69 and 70:
In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-
amino sulfomyl-6-chloro–ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently
it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.
69. Select the reagent P
(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde
(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde
70. The final product Y is
(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide
(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide
(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide
(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide
Data for questions 70 to 73:
Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to
yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an
aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.
71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?
(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04
(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04
72. Name the aliphatic amine used
(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine
(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine
73. Name the metabolite
(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil
(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide
Data for questions 74 to 76:
Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is
250 mm.
74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260
75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270
76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250
Data for questions 77 and 78:
In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and
subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium
sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose
absorbance is measured
77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI
(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid
(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid
78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour
(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride
(B) Ninhydrin reagent
(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde
(D) Phloroglucinol
Data for questions 79 and 80:
Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal
muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.
79. Carbidopa is used because
(A) it crosses blood brain barrier
(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase
(C) it inhibits MAO type A
(D) it inhibits MAO type B
80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA
(A) Dementia
(B) Hypertension
(C) Dyskinesia
(D) Excitotoxicity
Data for questions 81 and 82:
The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.
The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12
hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 – h r1.

63.
(A)P-2Q-4R-1S-3
(B)P-4Q-1R-3S-2
(C)P-3Q-2R-45-1
(D)P-3Q-1R-25-4
Group I
Terms Group II Explanation
(P) Saturated
(1) Pounds of water vapour carried by one pound of dry air under any given
air
set of conditions
(Q) Dew point (2) The water vapour is in equilibrium with liquid water at the given
conditions of temperature and pressure
(R) Humid
(3) The volume in cubic feet occupied by one pound dry of air and its
volume
accompanying water vapour
(S) Humidity (4) Temperature to which a mixture of air and water vapour must be cooled
in order to become saturated.
64.
(A) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3
(B) P – 3 Q – 1 R – 2 S – 4
Group I
Antibiotic Group II Test organism for microbiological assay IP
(P) Bleomycin (1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(Q) Nystatin (2) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(R) Carbenicillin (3) Bacillus subtilis
(S) Streptomycin (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Data for Q.66 — 80 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each
question from among the options A, B, C and D.
Common data for questions 66 and 67:
A sample of
Cinnamomum zeylanicum
purchased from the market was evaluated for its
authenticity.
66. It shows
(A) presence of cork and cortex (B) absence of cork and cortex
(C) absence of phloem fibres (D) presence of xylem parenchyma
67. Volatile oil should not be less than
(A)
0.05°h
(B)
0.20°h
(C)
0.50°h
(D) 1.00°h
Common data for questions 68, 69 and 70:
Chloroacetic acid and hydrazine are treated together with X to get semicarbazido acetic acid in
which ring closure takes place to 1-amino hydantoin. It is subsequently treated with 2-
diacetoxy methyl-5-nitrofuran to get Nitrofurantoin.
68. Reagetn ‘X’ is
(A) Cuprous chlodride (B) Potassium cyanate
(C) Silver nitrate (D) Mercurous chloride
69. Its IUPAC name is
(A) 1-(5-nitrofurfuryl) hydantoin
(B) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidene hydroxyl)hydantoin
(C) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidine amino) hydantoin
(D) 1-(5-aminfurfurylidine nitro) dydantoin
70. Its gastrointestinal tolerance can be improved without interfering with oral
absorption by preparing a
(A) solid dispersion (B) prodrug
(C) large crystalline form (Macrodantin) (D) suspension
Common data for questions 71 and 72:
A compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H4O exhibits a strong absorption band at 1730
cm1 in IR spectrum. On reduction, it is converted into ‘Y’ which shows a strong band at
3640cm*
71. Assign the band in X to
(A) CH3 (B) C = C (C) C = 0 (D)CH2C=O
72. The strong band in Y is due to
(A) -C-C (B) -C-O-C- (C) =CH2 (D)-OH
Common data for questions 73, 74 and 75:
In the management of asthma, the drugs used are Salmeterol, Zafirlukast, Budesonide,
Nedocromil sodium and Bambuterol.
73. Zafirlukast acts as
(A) 2 adrenoceptor agonist
(B) Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagnoist
(C) uscarinic receptor antagonist
(D) Antihistamine
74. A prodrug of terbutaline is
(A) Zafirlukast (B) Salmeterol
(C) Bambuterol (D) Nedocromil sodium
75. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time
(A) Budesonide (B) Zafirlukast (C) Salmeterol (D)Bambuterol
Common data for questions 76, 77 and 78:
In a pharmaceutical industry, batch filtration of liquids where the proportion of solids to liquids
is high is to be carried out. The complete recovery of solids is required. After filtration, the
filtrate, which is corrosive, gives a crystalline product on evaporation. The liquid tends to
deposit scales or crystals on the heating surface during evaporation.
76. A suitable filtration equipment is
(A) Plate and frame filter press (B) Leaf filters
(C) Meta filters (D) Membrane filters
77. The filter aid used in the above filtration is
(A) Sand (B) Nylon fibre cloth
(C) Activated carbon (D) Filter paper
78. A suitable evaporator is
(A) falling film evaporator (B) forced circulation evaporator
(C) vertical evaporator (D) horizontal tube evaporator
Common data for questions 79 and 80:
Isoprenoid biosynthesis is involved in the production of many biologically important
compounds such as Cholesterol, Steriod Hormones, Vitamin K, Vitamin E and bile acids.
79. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the patway, catalyzes
(A) side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones
(B) the reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosyntheis.
(C) the reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D.
(D) steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.
80. The inhibition of HMG-C0A teductase is a strategy used in the treatment of
(A) Familia hyperchlesterolemia (B) Vitamin K deficiency
(C) Inflammation in the joints (D) Hepatic parenchymal disease
Linked Answer Questions: Q.81a to Q85b Carry Two Marks Each. Statement for Linked Answer
Questions 81a to 81b:
81. (A) The selective COX-2 inhibitor is
(A) Ketorolac (B) Rofecoxib (C) Indomethacin (D)Naproxen
(B) The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking
(A) Antiallergic drugs (B) Anxiolytic drugs
(C) Antihypertensive drugs (D) Oral antidiabetic agents
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a to 82b:
A drug solution has an initial potency of 300 mg/lOml. When stored in a refrigerator for 30
days, its potency was found to be 100 mg/10m1.
82. (A) The rate constant, assuming that the drug solution undergoes first order kinetics, is:
(A) 0.0366 day1 (B) 0.0074 day1 (C) 0.0174 day1 (D)0.0506 day1
(B) Half-life of the drug solution, under these conditions is:
(A) 9.4 days (B) 19 days (C) 47 days (D)4.7 days
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a to 83b:
Ginger is a widely used herbal drug, containing many chemical constituents.
83. (A) The pungent principle present in it, is
(A) Zingiberol (B) Zingiberene (C) Gingerol (D)Cineole
(B) It’s decomposition product, on boiling with
2°h
KOH is
(A) Zingiberone (B) Shogaol
(C) Gingediol (D) Gingediol acetate
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a to 84b:
2, 6-dimethyl phenol and chloroacetone on reaction gives ‘X’, which on treatment with
hydroxylamine and hydrochloric acid gives an intermediate product. This on further treatment
with Raney nickel in acid, gives the final product.
84. (A) The product ‘X’ is:
(A) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-propanone
(B) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-butanone
(C) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-isopropanone
(D) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-pentanone
(B) The final product is
(A) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)isopropylamine
(B) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)ethylamine
(C) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)butylamien
(D) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)pentylamine
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 85a to 85b:
An organic compound ‘X’ has an absorption maxima at 217 nm. Its Emax is 16,000. the
absorbance is 0.64 when the cell length is 1 cm.
85. (A) The molar concentration of ‘X’ is
(A) 5×105 (B) 4×105 (C) 4×104 (D)5×102
(B) If the molecular weight is 56.06, its concentration in gms/ml is:
(A) 2.5×10 6 (B) 0.25×10 6 (C) 5×10 (D) 2.24×10 6
1. The structural feature common fro propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, metopropol in
the side chain is
(A) Isopropylamino propan-2-ol
(B) Dimethylamino propan-2-ol
(C) Diethylamino propan-2-ol
(D) Dibutylamino propan-2-ol
2. When N-methyl group of morphine is replaced with an allyl group, the compound formed is
(A) Naloxone-morphine antagonist
(B) Natrexone-morphine agonist
(C) Nalorphine-morphine antagonist
(D) Nalbuphine-morphine agonist/antagonist
3. Nitrazepam can be synthesized from
(A) 2-Bromo-5-amino benzophenone
(B) 2-Nitro-2-chloro acetophenone
(C) 2-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexanone
(D) 2-Amino-5-nitro benzophenone
4. Clavulanic acid has a beta lactam king fused to
(A) Thienyl system
(C) Thiazolidine system
(D) Oxazolidine system
5. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is
(A) Sulfinpyrazone
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ticlopidine
(D) Acetaminophen
6. Wild cherry bark contains prunasin which is a
(A) Phenolic glycoside
(B) Isothiocyanate glycoside
(C) Coumarin glycoside
(D) Cyanogenetic glycoside
7. Ephedra sinica and Ephedra equisetina can be distinguished by type of
(A) Branching
(B) Stomata
(C) Scaly leaves
(D)Alkaloids
8. Microprapagation of the plants is carried out through
(A) Cross fertilization
(B) Seed germination
(C) Plant tissue culture
(D) Grafting
9. Acontitine belongs to the group of
(A) Steroidal alkaloids
(B) Terpenoidal alkaloids
(C) Indole alkaloids
(D) Quinoline alkaloids
10. Crude fiber value of a drug is a measure of
(A) Soft tissue matter
(B) Woody matter
(C) Mineral matter
(D) Organic matter
11. One of the units used for expressing pressure is ‘torr’ and it is equal to
(A) cm of Hg
(B) mm of Hg
(C) psi
(D)gauss
12. Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of
(A) Fragment ion
(B) Metastable ion
(C) Molecular ion
(D) Rearrangement ion
13. Nuclear magnetic moment is NOT shown by
(A)
13C
(B) 16Q
(C)
1H
(D)
15N
14. Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance
(A) Molecular weight
(B) Detectability
(C) Reversibility

(D) Reproducibility
15. A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a
solution of
(A) NaCI
(B)
Hg2CI2
(C) KCI
(D)
Na2SO4
16. Metoclopramide is generally used for
(A) Prophylaxis of vomiting
(B) Preventing motion sickness
(C) Treating irritable bowel syndrome
(D) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency

18. Identify the non-pathogenic organism
(A) Mycobacterium bovis
(B) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(C) Mycobacterium avium
(D) Mycobacterium intracellulare
19. Bioassays are carried out to
(A) Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug
(B) Avoid clinical trails for new drugs
(C) Detect the impurity in a given drug
(D) Screen fro pharmacognetic influences of new drugs.
20. A direct way of studying idiosyncratic reactions to a given drug is by
(A) changing the route of drug administration
(B) changing the assay method
(C) pharmacogenomics
(D) structure activity relationship studies of a family of compounds
21. An example of haemopoietic growth factor is
(A) platelet derived growth factor
(B) epidermal growth factor
(C) iron dextran
(D) erythropoietin
22. Safranin is used as a reagent to detect
(A) Gram-negative bacteria
(B) Gram-positive bacteria
(C) Acid fast bacteria
(D) Myxozoa
23. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with
(A) Oral anticoagulants
(B) Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents
(C) Hydantoin anticonvulsants
(D) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
24. Simvastatin belongs to
(A) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents
(B) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents
(C) Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents
(D) Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents
25. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with
(A) Cytarabine
(B) Acyclovir
(C) Zidovudine
26. The measure of cohesive strength of the cross linking that occurs between gelatin
molecules and is proportional to the molecular weight of gelatin is called
(A) Bloom strength
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface tension
(D) Partition coefficient
27. A water soluble substance used as coating material in microencapsulation process is:
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Silicone
(C) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
(D) Paraffin
28. One of the following is used as a solubilizing agent to solubilize testosterone in
pharmaceutical liquid dosage forms.
(A) Sucrose monoesters
(B) Lanolin esters
(C) Lanolin ethers
(D) Tweens
29. One of the following is used as a pH dependent controlled release excipient.
(A) Carnauba wax
(B) Hydroxy proply methyl cellulose phthalate
(C) Methyl cellulose
(D) Glyceryl monostearate
30. The Schedule in D & C act that deals with the standards for disinfectant fluids is:
(A) Schedule B
(B) Schedule F
(C) Schedule 0
(D)Schedule M
Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each.
31. The carboxyl group of aspirin is esterified with N-acetyl-p-aminophenol to get
(A) 3-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate
(B) 4-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate
(C) O-(2-hydroxy benzoyl) salicylic acid
(D) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
32. JUPAC system of nomenclature for diclophenac sodium (BP) is
(A) Sodium 2-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(B) Sodium 3-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(C) Sodium 2-[(2-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(D) Sodium 2-[(6-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
33. 1-(2-Aminoethyl) perdydroazocine on treatment with S-methyl isothiourea gives rise to an
adrenergic neuron blocking agent
(A) Bethanidine
(B) Mecamylamine
(D)Gauenthidine
34. Quercetin is
(A) 5, 7, 3-Trihydroxy flavone
(B) 5, 7, 3, 4-Tetradydroxy flavone
(C) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonol
(D) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonone
35. Meconic acid is a chemical marker for the genus
(A) Piper
(B) Pilocarpus
(C) Prunus
(D)Papaver
36. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is
(A) Demecolcine
(B) Paclitaxel
(C) Vinblastin
(D)Brevifolicin
37. The absorption maximum for polar compounds is usually shifted with change in
polarity of the solvents due to
(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Chemical reaction
(C) Ionization of the compounds
(D) Change in the chromophone
38. A titration in which potential applied across two electrodes is maintained at a constant
value and the current is measured and plotted against volume of titrant is
(A) Potentiometric titration (B) Amperometric titration
(C) Displacement titration (D) Conductometric titration
39. The parameter in the elution curve that is proportional to the concentration of a compound
in gas chromatographic effluent is the
(A) Number of peaks
(B) Width of the peak
(C) Area under the peak
(D) Shape of the peak
40. A drug solution has a half life of 21 days. Assuming that the drug undergoes first order
kinetics, how long will it take for the potency to drop to 9O/c of the initial
potency?
(A) 3.2 days
(B) 9.6 days
(C) 16 days
(D)6.4 days
41. An amphoteric surfactant used in pharmaceutical disperse system is:
(A) Bile salts
(B) Lecithin
(C) Sorbitan monolaurate
(D) Sorbitan monostearate
42. An abrasive used in dentifrices is
(A) Dicalcium phosphate
(B) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose
(C) Sodium lauryl sulfate
(D) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
43. An electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute molecules by
creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied electrical
current or voltage is called
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) lontophoresis
(C) Osmosis
(D)Implants
44. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However,
recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance.
She has occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those
mentioned below:
(A) Paracetamol
(B) Celecoxib
(C) Piroxicam
(D)Naproxen
45. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by
(A) Plasmin
(B) Renin
(C) Urokinase
(D)Ptylin
46. Which one of the these best describes a process carried out to render a drug
pharmacokinetically more acceptable?
(A) Enteric coating if diclofenac.
(B) Co-administration of aspirin with antacids.
(C) Use of colloidal suspensions or liposomes for administering amphotericin-B.
(D) Synthesis of an analogue to obtain high receptor specificity.
47. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is
administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin
(A) Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly.
(B) Has a methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than
erythromycin.
(C) Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract.
(D) Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.
48. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was
administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?
(A) Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier.
(B) Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine.
(C) Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine.
(D) Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine
receptors.
49. Autoimmunity refers to
(A) an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen.
(B) failure to distinguish between self and non-self
(C) an automatic segregation of T and B cells.
(D) failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.
50. Which of these is true about the discovery of HB antigen in the blood of people infected
with Hepatitis-B?
(A) It provided a basis for vaccine design.
(B) It indicated that specific vaccines cannot be designed for Hepatitis-B.
(C) It has not been of much significance.
(D) It indicated that Hepatitis-B is a viral disease
51. Which drug molecule DOES NOT have phenylethyl amine moiety?
(A) Amphetamine
(B) Glyburide
(C) Pheniramine
(D)Mescaline
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correèt combination among A, B, C and D.
52. There are two methods by which the duration of action of insulin may be prolonged.
(P) Binding with resins.
(Q) Esterification of amio acid residues.
(R) Forming of complex of insulin with protein.
(5) Modification of particle size.
(A) Q, R (B) R, S (C) P.S (D)P, R
53. The attributes of cycloserine are
(P) No tautomerism shown.
(Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form.
(R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH.
(S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH.
(A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D)P, R
54. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological
properties.
(P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation.
(Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened.
(R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D)Q, R
55. The identification of propellants in pharamaceutical aerosols is carried out by
(P) Gas-chromatography
(Q) Tag-open cup apparatus
(R) Pyknometer
(S) JR Spectrophotometer
(A) P, Q (B) P, S (C) Q, R (D)R, S
56. Schedule ‘H’ and Schedule ‘5’ as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deal with the following.
(P) Prescription drugs which are required to be sold by retail only on prescription of R.M.P.
(Q) Standards for cosmetics
(R) Biological and special products
(5) List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics and soaps
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)R, S
57. Myristica fragrans Houtt has two of the following characteristics.
(P) An indeciduous tree, which produces drupaceous, pale yellow fruits.
(Q) Each fruit has several round seeds with smooth surface and lignaceous tegument, and the
orange red fleshy aril — the mace, is present inside the seed.
(R) A deciduous tall tree, which produces lignaceous capsules.
(S) Each fruit has a unique avoid seed, with lignified tegument, surrounded by orange red
laciniate fleshly aril — the mace.
(A) Q, R (B) P, R (C) P.S (D)Q, S
58. Jn size exclusion chromatography the stationary phases used are:
(P) Alumina (Q) Dextran (R) Agarose (S)Styrene
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D)P, R
Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct
Group II
Group I
Intermediates from which Group I drugs are
Synthetic Drugs
synthesized
(P) Buclizin (1) Aziridin and thiophosphoryl chloride
(Q)
C h 10 ro ph en es
(2) 4-Chlorophenol
in
(R) Thiotepa (3) 4-Chlorobenzhydryl chloride
(S) Alprazolam (4) 2-Amino-5-Chloro benzophenone
Codes:
(A) P – 3 Q – 2 R – 1 S-4
(B) P – 4 Q – 2 R – 1 S – 3
(C) P – 2 Q – 4 R – 3 S-1
(D) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3
60
Group I
Group II
Cardiac Agents
Mechanism of action
(P) Digitoxin (1) Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking
calcium channels
(Q)
(2) Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx
Dobutamine
through beta receptor blockade
(R) Sotalol (3) Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimulation of

(4) Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase
(S) Nicardipine
pump.
Codes:
(A)P-4Q-3R-2S-1
(B)P-3Q-4R-1S-2
(C)P-4Q-2R-3S-1
(D)P-4Q-3R-1S-2
61.
Group I
Group II
Technique employed
(P) Visible spectrophotometry (1)
Rf
Source transmitter
(Q) JR spectrophotometry (2) Xenon lamp
(R) NMR spectrophotometry (3) Tungsten lamp
(S) Fluorescence (4) Nernst glower
spectrophotometry
Codes:
(A) P – 2 Q – 4 R-3 S-1
(B) P – 3 Q – 2 R – 1 S – 4
(C) P – 3 Q – 4 R- 1 S-2
(D) P – 4 Q – 1 R – 3 S – 2
1. In a comparative chemical study of Morphine, Codeine and Thebaine, the following
observations are noted. Give your inferences
(a) Morphine forms dibenzoate, Codeine forms a monobenzoate
(b) Morphine gives a positive ferric chloride test and others do not
(c) Codeine gives one molecule of CH3I when heated with HI where as thebaine gives two
molecules CH3I
(d) Morphine on treatment with halogenoacid gives a monohalogen derivative
(e) All the three alkaloids combine with CH3I to form methiiodide
5. With respect to Ceylon Cinnamon, give
(a) Botanical source with family
(b) Main active constituent with its chemical nature
(c) Chemical structure of the main active constituent
6. Assign the bands in the JR spectrum for appropriate groups given below:

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GATE Exam ElectricalEngineering Practice Exam

1.1 When the plate area of a parallel plate capacitor is increased keeping the capacitor voltage
constant, the force between the plates
(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the metal making up the plates
1.2 Two parallel wires separated by a distance d are carrying a current I in the same direction.
The magnetic field along a line running parallel to these wires and midway between them
(a) depends upon I
(b) is zero
(c) depends upon d
(d) depends upon the permeability of medium between the wires
1.3 An electromagnetic field is radiated from
(a) a stationary point charge
(b) a capacitor with a DC voltage
(c) a conductor carrying a DC current
(d) an oscillating dipole
1.4 The mobility of an electron in a conductor is expressed in terms of
(a)
cm2/V—s
(b)
cm/V—s
(C)
cm2/V
(d)cm2/s
1.5 An enhancement type n-channel MOSFET is represented by the symbol
(a) .— I
(b) .__ I
(c)
(d)
1.6 As the temperature is increased, the voltage across a diode carrying a diode
carrying a constant current
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending upon the doping levels in the junction
1.7 A single channel digital storage oscilloscope uses a 10 bit, i07 samples per second Analog-
to-Digital Converter. For a 100 KHz sine wave input, the number of samples taken per cycle of
the input will be
(a) i07
(b) i04
(c) i03
(d) 102
1.8 Higher synchronous reactance is preferred in the present day alternators,
because one can have
(a) reduced sub-transient currents
(b) reduced harmonic currents
(c) reduced transient currents
(d) higher voltage regulation with load
1.9 The RMS value of a half-wave rectified symmetrical square wave current of 2A is:
(a) 1OV
(b)
JA
(c) 200V
(d) 1A
1.10 Electodynamic type wattmeters have large errors while measuring power in ac circuits at
low power factor conditions, since the voltage across and the current through the
2Oc .ø—200
v—+
ioov (. 200V
5OHz I
(a) current coil are not in phase
(c) pressures coil are not in phase
(d) pressure coil are not in quadrature
1.11 The current in the circuit shown in Fig.1.12 is:
(a) 5A
(b) 1OA
(c) iSA
(d) 25A
1.12 For the circuit shown and Y will be
in Fig.below, the capacitance measured between terminals B
(a)
(b)
C+–
(c)
(c+3c)
(d)
3C+2C
An overhead line having a surge impedance of 400c is connected in series with an
underground cable having a surge impedance of iooc. If a surge of 50 kV travels from the line
end towards the line-cable junctions, the value of the transmitted voltage wave at the junction
is:
(a) 30 kV
(b) 20 kV
(c) 80 kV
(d) -30 kV
1.14 The load carrying capability of a long AC transmission line is:
(a) always limited by the conductor size
(b) limited by stability considerations
(c) reduced at a low ambient temperatures
(d) decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors
1.15 Corona losses are minimized when
(a) conductor size is reduced
(b) smooth conductor is reduced
(c) sharp points are provided in the line hardware
(d) current density in conductors is reduced
1.16 In a DC transmission line
(a) it is necessary for the sending end and receiving end to be operated in synchronism.
(b) the effects of inductive and capacitive reactances are greater than in an AC transmission
line of the same rating.
(c) there are not effects due to inductive and capacitive reactances
(d) power transfer capability is limited by stability considerations.
1.18 Steady state stability of a power system is the ability of the power system to (a)
maintain voltage at the rated voltage level
(b) maintain frequency exactly at 50 Hz
(c) maintain a spinning reserve margin at all times
(d) maintain synchronism between machines and on external tie lines
1.17. A 4-pole lap-wound DC generator has a developed power of P watts and voltage of E
volts. Two adjacent brushes of he machine are removed as they are worn out. If the machine
operates with the remaining brushes, the developed voltage and power that can be obtained
from the machine are
EP p p
(a) E, P
(b) –,-
(c) E,
(d) E,
1.18. Starting torque can be obtained in the case of a single phase induction motor with
identical main and auxiliary windings by connecting
(a) a capacitor across the mains
(b) a capacitor in series with the machine
(c) a capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding
(d) the main and the auxiliary windings in series
1.19. The windings of a QkVA, •—volt, three-phase, Delta connected, core type
transformer are reconnected to work as a single phase transformer. The maximum voltage
and the power ratings of the new configuration are,
(a) -,3Q
(b) J-r- E
(c) ,2Q
(d)
1.20. Resonant converters are basically used to
(a) generate large peaky voltage
(b) reduce the switching losses
(c) eliminate harmonics
(d) convert a square wave into a sine wave
1.21. A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to
(a) reduce the total harmonic distortion with modest filtering
(b) minimize the load on the DC side
(c) increase the life of the batteries
(d) reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics
1.22 The following starting method for an induction motor is inferior view of the poor starting
torque per ampere of the line current drawn:
(a) Direct line starting
(b) Auto transformer method of starting
(c) Series inductor method of starting
(d) Star-Delta method of starting
2. This question consists of 25 (TWENTTY FIVE) sub-questions. Each sub-question carries TWO
marks. The answers to these sub-questions MUST be written only in the appropriate boxes
corresponding to the questions in the first page of the answer book.
2.1 The color code of a 1 kc resistance is:
(a) black, brown, red
(b) red, brown, brown
(c) brown, black, red
(d) black, black, red
2.2. A rectangular voltage pulse of magnitude V and duration T is applied to a series
combination of resistance R and capacitance C. The maximum voltage developed across the
capacitor is:
(a) V[1_exP
(c) V (d) Vexpj
2.3. When a periodic triangular voltage peak amplitude 1 V and frequency 0.5 Hz is applied to
a parallel combination of ic resistance and 1 F capacitance, the current through the voltage
source has wave-form.
(a) (b) //1
(c) h h (d)
2.4. For a flip-flop formed from two NAND X Q gates as shown in Fig below , the unusable
state corresponds to
2.5. The logic function
f
=
(x.)
+ is the same as
(a) f=(x+y)(x+y)
A
dB /6dBper
— —
I
octive
(b)
f=(x+y)+(x+y)
0dB
(c)
f
=
(x.y).(x.y)
(d) None of (a), (b) (c).
2.6. For a single phase overhead line having solid copper conductors of diameter 1 cm, spaced
60 cm between centers, the inductance in mH/km is:
(a) 0.05+0.21n60
(b) 0.21n60
(c) 0.05+0.2ln
(d) 0.2ln2
2.7. An industrial consumer has a daily load pattern of 2000 kW, 0.8 lag for 12 hours, and
1000 kW UPF for 12 hours. The load factor is:
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.6
(d) 2.0
2.8. A 220 kV, 20 km long, 3-phase transmission line has the following A, B, C, D constants. A
= D = 0.96 L3°, B = 55Z65°cVphase, C = 0.5E – 04Z80°S/phase. Its charging current per
phase is:
(a)
(b) hA
(c) 220A
(d)
2.9. A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 200 kW load has a power factor of 0.8 lag. A delta connected 3-
phase capacitor is used to improve the power factor to unity. The capacitance power phase of
the capacitor in microfarads is
(a) 3.948
(b) 1.316
(c) 0.439
(d) 11.844
2.10. A 10 kVA, 400 V/200V single-phase transformers with
10°h
impedance draws a steady
short circuit line current of
(a) 50 A
(b) 150 A
(c) 250 A
(d) 350 A
2.11. The percentage resistance and percentage reactance of a 10 kVA, 400 V/200 V,
3-phase transformer are 2% and lO% respectively. If the constant losses in the machine are
l%, the maximum possible percentage efficiency of the transformer is:
(a) 98.32
(b) 97.25
(c) 96.85
(d) 96.12
2.12. A 400V/100V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an auto- transformer
across a suitable voltage source. The maximum rating of such an arrangement could be
(a) 50 kVA
(b) 15 kVA
(c) 12.5 kVA
(d) 8.75 kVA
2.13. A DC shunt motor is running t I200 rmp, when excited with 220 V DC. Neglecting the
losses and saturation, the speed of the motor when connected to a 175 V DC supply is:
(a) 750 RPM
(b) 900 RPM
(c) 1050 RPM
(d) 1200 RPM
2.14. A three phase alternator is wound with a 60 degree phase-spread armature windings
and develops 300 kVA. If the armature is reconnected utilizing all the coils for single phase
operation with a phase spread of 180 degrees, the new rating of the machine is
(a) 100 kVA
(b) 200 kVA
(c) 250 kVA
(d) 300 kVA
2.15. A 10 kVA, 400 V/200 V, single phase transformer with a percentage resistance of 3%
and percentage reactance of 6% is supplying a current of 50 A to a resistive load. The value of
the load voltage is:
(a) 194 V
(b) 390 V
(c) 192 V
(d) 196 V
2.16. For a dual ADC type 3-digit DVM, the reference voltage is 100 mV and the first
integration time is set to 300 ms. For some input voltage, the “deintegration” period is 370.2
ms. The DVM will indicate
(a) 123.4
(b) 199.9
(c) 100.0
(d) 1.141
2.17. When a resistor R is connected to a current source, it consumes a power of 18 W. when
the same R is connected to a voltage source having the same magnitude as
the current source, the power absorbed by R is 4.5 W. The magnitude of the
current source and the value of R are
(a)
-JfäA
and ic
(b) 3A and
(c) 1A and 18
(b) X1 < (c) X1 = >>
X
(d) X1 =
X < 11. Which three-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase difference of 30° between its output and corresponding input line voltages (b) Star - Delta (c) Delta - Delta (d) Delta - Zigzag 12. For an induction motor, operating at a slip s, the ratio of gross power output to air gap power is equal to: (a) (1—s)2 (b) (1—s) (c) q(1_s) (d) (i_4) 13. The p.u. parameters for a 500 MVA machine on its own base are: inertia M = 20 p.u.; reactance X = 2 p.u. The p.u. values of inertia and reactance on 100 MVA common base, respectively, are (a) 4, 0.4 (b) 100, 10 (c) 4, 10 (d) 100, 0.4 14. An 800 kV transmission line has a maximum power transfer capacity on the operated at 400 kV with the series reactance unchanged, the new maximum power transfer capacity is approximately 15. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by (A) load power factor (B) switching over-voltages (C) harmonics (D) corona 16. High Voltage DC (HVDC) transmission is mainly used for (a) bulk power transmission over very long distances (b) inter-connecting two systems with the same nominal frequency (c) eliminating reactive power requirement in the operation (d) minimizing harmonics at the converter stations 17. Q-meter works on the principle of (a) mutual inductance (b) self inductance (c) series resonance (d) parallel resonance 18. A PMMC voltmeter is connected across a series combination of a DC voltage source V1 = 2Vand an AC voltage source v2 (t) = 3sin(4t) V. The meter reads (c) [2+4V (d) [çv 19. Assume that D1 and D2 in Fig.Q below are ideal diodes. The value of current I is: (a) 0 mA (b) 0.5 mA 2kc (c) 1 mA lmA1 (d) 2 mA 2kc 20. The 8085 assembly language instruction registers into the memory locations 2050H that stores the contents of H and L and 2051H’ respectively, is: (a) SPHL 2050H (b) SPHL 2051H (c) SHLD 2050H (d) STAX 2050H 21. Assume that the N-channel MOSFET shown in Fig. below is ideal, and that its threshold voltage is +1.OV. The voltage Vab between nodes a and b is: (a) 5V (b) 2V (c) 1V (d) CV 22. The digital circuit shown in Fig. below works as a (a) JKflip-flop (b) Clocked RS flip-flop (c) Tflip-flop (d) Ring counter 23. A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5V has a resolution close to 14 mV. Its bit size is: (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32 24. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by (a) a parabola (b) a straight line (c) a rectangular hyperbola (d) an exponentially decaying function 25. A three-phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400V RMS, 50 Hz, three-phase AC source. If the load is purely resistive, the peak instantaneous output voltage is equal to 400 (c) 4OOj V (d) -7=-V 26. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square-wave inverter contains (a) only even harmonics (b) both odd and even harmonics (c) only odd harmonics (d) only triplen harmonics Q.31 — Q.80 carry two marks each 31. The RL circuit of Fig.Q31 is fed from a constant magnitude, variable frequency sinusoidal voltage source VIN. At 100 Hz, the R and L elements each have a voltage drop URMS. If the frequency of the source is changed to 50 Hz, the new voltage drop across R is: (a) JURMS (b) J1URMS (c) JURMS (d) 4JURMS 32. The circuit shown in Fig. below is in steady state, when the switch is closed at t = 0. Assuming that the inductance is ideal, the current through the inductor at t = equals (a) 0 A (b) 0.5A (c) 1A (d) 2 A 33. For the three-phase circuit shown in Fig. below, the ratio of the current : I>,
:
18
is
(a) i:i:J
(b) 1:1:2
(c) 1:1:0
(d) i:i:J
34. For the triangular waveform shown in Fig. below, the RMS value of the voltage is equal to
(a)
T
T
2
(b)
2T t
2
1
(c). (d)
1 DV
t=o
35. The charge distribution in a metal-dielectric-semiconductor specimen is shown in Fig.
below. The negative charge density decreases linearly in the semiconductor as shown. The
electric field distribution is as shown in
(c)
(d) Dielectric
36. In Fig. below, the Thevenin’s equivalent pair (voltage, terminals P-Q, is given by
(a) (2V, 512)
(b) (2V, 7.512)
(c) (4V, 512)
(d) (4V, 7.512)
37. A unity feedback system, having an open loop gain
K(1-s)
G(s)H(s)
= ,becomes stable when
(1+s)
Metal
Semiconductor
(a) K>1
(b) K >1
v.
Then R is:
(A) Neither a Partial Order nor an Equivalence Relation
(B) A Partial Order but not a Total Order
(C) A Total Order
(D) An Equivalence Relation
5. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the time-
to-live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header?
(A) Ensure packets reach destination within that time
(B) Discard packets that reach later than that time
(C) Prevent packets from looping indefinitely
(D) Limit the time for which a packet gets queued in intermediate routers.
6. Consider three CPU-intensive processes, which require 10, 20 and 30 time units and arrive
at times 0, 2 and 6, respectively. How many context switches are needed if the operating
system implements a shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm? Do not count the
context switches at time zero and at the end.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
7. Consider the following grammar.
Consider the following LR(0) items corresponding to the grammar above.
Given the items above, which two of them will appear in the same set in the canonical sets-of-
items for the grammar?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) None of the above
8. You are given a free running clock with a duty cycle of 50% and a digital waveform f which
changes only at the negative edge of the clock. Which one of the following circuits (using
clocked D flip-flops) will delay the phase of f by 1800?
9. A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal). Which one of
the following is a legal program counter (all values in decimal)?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700
10. In a binary max heap containing
n
numbers, the smallest element can be found in time
(A)
0(n)
(B)
O(logn)
(C) 0(loglogn)
(D)
0(1)
11. Consider a weighted complete graph Gon the vertex set
{v1,v2
,v} such that the weight of
the edge
(v,,v)
is
2i-j.
The weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is:
(A)
n—i
(B)
2n—2
(C)
(D) 2
12. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in
linear time, the data structure to be used is:
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Heap
(D) B-Tree
13. A scheme for storing binary trees in an array X is as follows. Indexing of X starts at 1
instead of 0. the root is stored at X. For a node stored at X[i], the left child, if any, is stored
in X[2i] and the right child, if any, in X[2i+1]. To be able to store any binary tree on nvertices
the minimum size of X should be
(A) log2
n
(B)
n
(C)
2n+1
(D) 2—1
14. Which one of the following in place sorting algorithms needs the minimum number of
swaps?
(A) Quick sort
(B) Insertion sort
(C) Selection sort
(D) Heap sort
15. Consider the following C-program fragment in which
i,j
and nare integer variables.
for (i = n,j = 0; i >0; i
1=
2,j +=i);
Let val(j)denote the value stored in the variable jafter termination of the
for
loop. Which one
of the following is true?
(A)
val(j)
=
8(logn)
(B)
vaI(j)=8(fi)
(C)
val(j)=8(n)
(D)
val(j)= 8(nlogn)
16. Let S be an NP-complete problem and Q and R be two other problems not known to be in
NP. Q is polynomial time reducible to S and S is polynomial-time reducible to R. Which one of
the following statements is true?
(A) R is NP-complete
(B) R is NP-hard
(C) Q is NP-complete
(D) Q is NP-hard
17. An element in an array X is called a leader if it is greater than all elements to the right of
it in X. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array
(A) Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array
(B) Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array
(C) Solves it using divide and conquer in time
8(nlogn)
(D) Solves it in time
8(n2)
18. We are given a set X {x1
x}
where x, = 2’. A sample S c Xis drawn by selecting each
x,independently with probability p, =-.The expected value of the smallest number in sample S
is:
(A)
(B) 2
(C)
(D)
n
19. Let
L1 {OnminOmnm>O1L {Onmin+mOmnm>O}
and
i
= {jt
n rnjn mflm
01. Which of these languages are NOT context free?
(A)
L1
only
(B)
L3
only
(C)
L1
and
L2
(D)
L2
and
L3
20. Consider the following log sequence of two transactions on a bank account, with initial
balance 12000, that transfer 2000 to a mortgage payment and then apply a 5% interest.
1. T1 start
2. T1 B old= 1200 new= 10000
3. T1 M old=0 new=2000
4. T1 commit
5. T2start
6. T2 B old= 10000 new= 10500
7. T2 commit
Suppose the database system crashes just before log record 7 is written. When
the system is restarted, which one statement is true of the recovery procedure?
(A) We must redo log record 6 to set B to 10500
(B) We must undo log record 6 to set B to 10000 and then redo log records 2 and 3
(C) We need not redo log records 2 and 3 because transaction Ti has committed
(D) We can apply redo and undo operations in arbitrary order because they are idempotent.
Q.21 — Q.75 Carry Two Marks Each
21. For each element in a set of size
2n,an
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2ncoin tosses are
independent. An element is chosen if the corresponding coin toss were head. The probability
that exactly
n
elements are chosen is:
(A) 2n
22. Let E, F and G be finite sets.
Let
X=(EflF)-(FflG)
and
Y=(E_(EflG))_(E_F).
Which one of the following is true?
(A)
XcY
(B)
XDY
(C)
X=Y
(D)
X-Y ØandY-X Ø
23. F is an nxn real matrix. b is an nxi real vector. Suppose there are two nxivectors,
u
and
vsuch that
u
v,and
Fu
=
b,Fv
=
b.
Which one of the following statements is false?
(A) Determinant of
F
is zero
(B) There are an infinite number of solutions to
Fx
=
b
(C) There is an x Osuch that
Fx
= 0
(D)
F
must have two identical rows
24.
integers S, and ,r(S) is the set of integers obtained by applying permutation rto each
element of S?
(A)
(n-AUBAHB
(B)
(A2
+B2)n2
(C)
n!
(D)
A
fl B2/[A U
B
25. Let S = {1,2,3
,m},m>3.
Let X1 X be subsets of S each of size 3.
Define a function ffrom Sto the set of natural numbers as,
f(i)is
the number of sets Xthat
contain the element
I.
That is
f (I)={jIE
x7[.
Then
f(i)is:
(A) 3m
(B)
3n
(C) 2m+1
(D) 2n+1
26. Which one of the first order predicate calculus statements given below correctly expresses
the following English statement?
Tigers and lions attack if they are hungry or threatened.
(A) vx[(tiger(x) A lion(x)) — {(hungry(x) v threatened(x)) — attacks(x))1
(B) Vx [(tiger (x) v lion (x)) — {(hungry (x) v threatened (x)) A attacks (x)j
(C) Vx[(tiger(x) v lion(x)) — {attacks(x) — (hungry(x) v threatened(x)))1
(D) vx[(tiger(x) v lion(x)) — {(hungry(x) v threatened(x)) — attacks(x))1
27. Consider the following propositional statements:
Pl:((AAB)C))((AC)A(BC))
P2:((AvB)C))((A—C)v(B_C))
Which one of the following is true?
(A) P1 is a tautology, but not P2
(B) P2 is a tautology, but not P1
(C) P1 and P2 are both tautologies
(D) Both P1 and P2 are not tautologies
28. A logical binary relation
a,
is defined as follows:
Let be the unary negation (NOT) operator, with higher precedence then o. Which one of the
following is equivalent to
A
A
B?
(A)
(‘-‘.‘AOB)
(B)
-‘.‘(AO’-..’B)
(C)
“.‘(“.‘Ao”.’B)
(D)
AOB)
29. If
s
is a string over (0 + 1)* then let
n0 (s)
denote the number of 0’s in
s
and
n1
(s)the number of l’s in
s.
Which one of the following languages is not
regular?
(A)
L
=
{s
(0 + 1)*n0
(s)
is a 3-digit prime
(B)
L
=
{s
E (0 + 1)* for every prefix
s’
of
s, fl0 (s’)

n1 (s’)
2}
(C)
L={sE(0+1)*n0(s)_n1(s)4}
(D)
L
=
{s
E (0 + 1) j
n0 (s)
mod 7 =
n1 (s)
mod 5 = 0)
30. For SE (0+1)*let d(s)denote the decimal value of
s(e.g.d(101)=
5). Let
L
=
{s
E (0 + 1) j
d (s)
mod 5 = 2 and
d (s)
mod 7 = 4)
Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) L is recursively enumerable, but not recursive
(B) L is recursive, but not context-free
(C) L is context-free, but not regular
(D) L is regular
31. Let SHAM3 be the problem of finding a Hamiltonian cycle in a graph G
=(V,E)with
V
divisible by 3 and DHAM3 be the problem of determining if a Hamiltonian cycle exists in such
graphs. Which one of the following is true?
A B
AoB
True True True
True Fals
e True
Fals
e True False
Fals
Fals
e
e True
(A) Both DHAM3 and SHAM3 are NP-hard
(B) SHAM3 is NP-hard, but DHAM3 is not
(C) DHAM3 is NP-hard, but SHAM3 is not
(D) Neither DHAM3 nor SHAM3 is NP-hard
32. Consider the following statements about the context free grammar G = {S –
SS,
S –
ab, S

ba, S
-}
I. G is ambiguous
II. G produces all strings with equal number of a’s and b’s
III. G can be accepted by a
deterministic PDA.
Which combination below expresses all the true statements about G?
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
33. Let
L1
be a regular language,
L2
be a deterministic context-free language and
L3
a
recursively enumerable, but not recursive, language. Which one of the following statements is
false?
(A)
L1
fl
L
is a deterministic CFL
(B)
L3
fl
L
is recursive
(C)
L1
U
L2
is context free
(D)
L1
fl
L fl L3
is recursively enumerable
34. Consider the regular language
L
=(111+11111)*. The minimum number of
states in any DFA accepting this languages is:
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
Consider the circuit above. Which one of the following options correctly represents
f(x,y,z)?
(A)
xz+xy+yz
(B)
xz+xy+yz
(C)
xz+xy+yz
(D)
xz+xy+yz
36. Given two three bit numbers a2a1a0 and
b2b1b0
and
c,
the carry in, the function that
represents the
carry
generate function when these two numbers are added is:
(A)
a2b2
+
a2a1b1
+
a2a1a0b0
+
a2a0b1b0
+
a1b2b1
+
a1a0b2b0
+
a0b2b1b0
(B)
a2b2
+
a2b1b0
+
a2a1b1b0
+
a1a0b2b1
+
a1a0b2
+
a1a0b2b0
+
a2a0b1b0
(C) a2
+b2 +(a2 \$b2)(a1 +b1 +(a1 \$b1) (a0 +b0))
(D)
a2b2
+
a2a1b1
+
a2 a1a0b0
+
a2 a0 b1b0
+
a1 b2 b1
+
a1a0 b2b0
+
a0 b2b1b0
37. Consider the circuit in the diagram. The \$ operator represents Ex-OR. The D flip- flops are
initialized to zeroes (cleared).
The following data: 100110000 is supplied to the “data” terminal in nine clock
cycles. After that the values of q2q1q0 are:
(A) 000
(B) 001
(C) 010
(D) 101
38. Consider a Boolean function
f (w,x,y,z).
suppose that exactly one of its inputs is allowed to
change at a time. If the function happens to be true for two input vectors
i
=
(w1,x1,y1,z1)
and ‘2
(w2,x2,y2,z2),
we would like the function to
remain true as the input changes from
i
to ‘2 (‘ and ‘2 differ in exactly one bit position),without becoming false
momentarily. Let
f (w,x,y,z)
= (5,7,11,12,13,15). Which of the following cube covers of f will
ensure that the required property is satisfied?
(A)
wxz, wxy, xyz, xyz, wyz
(B)
wxy,wxz,wyz
(C)
wxyz,xz,wxyz
(D)
wzy, wyz, wxz, wxz, xyz, xyz
39. We consider the addition of two 2’s complement numbers
b 1b
2
.b0
and a 1a 2….a0. A
binary adder for adding unsigned binary numbers is used to add the two numbers. The sum is
denoted by
c 1c 2….c0
and the carry-out by
cQLJ.
Which one of the following options correctly
identifies the overflow condition?
(A)
c0(a1sb1)
(B) a
1b
1c+a
1b
1C
(C)
cQLJ
1
(D)
a1\$b1\$c1
40. Consider numbers represented in 4-bit gray code. Let
h3h2h1h0
be the gray code
representation of a number nand let
g3g2g1g0be
the gray code of (n+1) (modulo 16) value of
the number. Which one of the following functions is correct?
(A)
g0(h3h2h1h0)=(1,2,3,6,1O,13,14,15)
(B)
g1(h3h2h1h0)=
(4,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)
(C)
g2(h3h2h1h0)=(2,4,5,6,7,12,13,15)
(D)
g3(h3h2h1h0)=(0,1,6,7,10,11,12,13)
41. A CPU has a cache with block size 64 bytes. The main memory has kbanks, each bank
being cbytes wide. Consecutive c—byte chunks are mapped on consecutive banks with wrap-
around. All the kbanks can be accessed in parallel, but two accesses to the same bank must
be serialized. A cache block access may involve multiple iterations of parallel bank accesses
depending on the amount of data obtained by accessing all the kbanks in parallel. Each
iteration requires decoding the bank numbers to be accessed in parallel and this takes
–ns.
The latency of one bank access is 80 ns. If
c
= 2 and
k
= 24, the latency of retrieving a cache
block starting at address zero from main memory is:
(A) 92 ns
(B) 104 ns
(C) 172 ns
(D) 184 ns
42. A CPU has a five-stage pipeline and runs at 1 GHz frequency. Instruction fetch happens in
the first stage of the pipeline. A conditional branch instruction computes the target address
and evaluates the condition in the third stage of the pipeline. The processor stops fetching
new instructions following a conditional branch until the branch outcome is known. A program
executes io instructions out of which 20% are conditional branches. If each instruction takes
one cycle to complete on average, the total execution time of the program is:
(A) 1.0 second
(B) 1.2 seconds
(C) 1.4 seconds
(D) 1.6 seconds
43. Consider a new instruction named branch-on-bit-set (mnemonic bbs). The instruction
“bbs
reg, pos, label”
jumps to label if bit in position
pos
of register operand
reg
is one. A register is
32 bits wide and the bits are numbered 0 to 31, bit in position 0 being the least significant.
Consider the following emulation of this instruction on a processor that does not have
bbs
implemented.
temp

Branch to
label
if temp is non-zero.
The variable
temp
is a temporary register. For correct emulation, the variable mask must be
generated by
(A)
mask —0x1< (B) mask f— 0 x rrrrrrrr >>
pos
(C)
(D)
44. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station B using a sliding window
protocol. The round trip delay between A and B is 80 milliseconds and the bottleneck
bandwidth on the path between A and B is 128 kbps. What is the optimal window size that A
should use?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 160
(D) 320
45. Two computers Cl and C2 are configured as follows. Cl has IP address
203.197.2.53 and netmask 255.255.128.0. C2 has IP address 203.197.75.201 and netmask
255.255.192.0. which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Cl and C2 both assume they are on the same network
(B) C2 assumes Cl is on same network, but Cl assumes C2 is on a different network
(C) Cl assumes C2 is on same network, but C2 assumes Cl is on a different network
(D) Cl and C2 both assume they are on different networks.
46. Station A needs to send a message consisting of 9 packets to Station B using a sliding
window (window size 3) and go-back-n error control strategy. All packets are ready and
immediately available for transmission. If every 5th packet that A transmits gets lost (but no
acks from B ever get lost), then what is the number of packets that A will transmit for sending
the message to B?
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18
47. Consider the following graph:
Which one of the following cannot be the sequence of edges added, in that
order, to a minimum spanning tree using Kruskal’s algorithm?
(A)
(a—b),(d—f),(b—f),(d—c),(d—e)
(B)
(a—b),(d—f),(d—c),(b—f),(d—e)
(C)
(d—f),(a—b),(d—c),(b—f),(d—e)
(D)
(d—f),(a—b),(b—f),(d—e),(d—c)
48. Let
T
be a depth first search tree in an undirected graph G. Vertices
u
and
v
are leaves of
this tree
T.
The degrees of both
u
and
v
in G are at least 2. which one of the following
statements is true?
(A) There must exist a vertex
w
u
and
v
in G
(B) There must exist a vertex
w
whose removal disconnects
u
and
v
in G
(C) There must exist a cycle in G containing
u
and
v
(D) There must exist a cycle in G containing uand all its neighbours in G.
49. An implementation of a queue Q, using two stacks Si and S2, is given below:
void insert (Q, x)
push (Si, x);
void delete (Q)
if (stack—empty(52)) then
if
(stack—empty(Si)) then
print(”Q is empty”);
return;
else while (! (stack—empty (Si)))
x=pop (Si);
push(52,x)
x=pop (S2);
Let
flinsert
and
m(
n)delete operations be performed in an arbitrary order on an empty queue
Q. Let x and y be the number of
push
and pop operations performed respectively in the
process. Which one of the following is true for all
m
and
n?
(A)
n+m x<2n and 2m (B) n+m x<2n and 2m (C) 2m x<2n and 2m (D) 2m x<2n and 2m 50. A set X can be represented by an array x[nl as follows: Ii ifx[i1]= O otherwise Consider the following algorithm in which x,y and z are Boolean arrays of size n: algorithm zzz(x[ 1, y[ 1, z [ mt i; for (i=O; i z[i] = (x[i] Ay[i]) V (x[i] A y[i]) } The set Z computed by the algorithm is: (A) (XUY) (B) (xflY) (C) (X-Y)fl(Y-X) (D) (x-Y)U(Y-x) 51. Consider the following recurrence: T(n)=2T(r*i1)+1,T(1) = 1 Which one of the following is true? (A) T(n) = e(loglogn) (B) T(n) = e(logn) (C) T(n)=8(sJ) (D) T(n)rz8(n) 52. The median of n elements can be found in O(n)time. Which one of the following is correct about the complexity of quick sort, in which median is selected as pivot? (A) 8(n) (B) e(nlogn) (C) 8(n2) (D) 8(n3) 53. Consider the following C-function in which a[nl and b[mlare two sorted integer arrays and c[n + mibe another integer array. void xyz(int a[], mt b [1, mt c []){ mt i,j,k; i=j=k=O; while ((i if (a[i] < b[j]) c[k++] = a[i++]; else c[k++] = Which of the following condition(s) hold(s) after the termination of the while loop? (i) j and a[n—i1 (ii) i and b[m—i1a[i1 ifj=m (A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) either (i) or (ii) but not both (D) neither (i) nor (ii) 54. Given two arrays of numbers a1,...,a and b1,...,b where each number is 0 or 1, the fastest algorithm to find the largest span (i,j)such that a, + a,1 + ... + a = b, + b,1 + ... + b, or report that there is not such span, (A) Takes Q(3n) and c(2)time if hashing is permitted (B) Takes 0(n3) and c(n25)time in the key comparison model (C) Takes e(n)time and space (D) Takes o(J) time only if the sum of the 2n elements is an even number 55. Consider these two functions and two statements Si and S2 about them. mt workl(±nt *a, mt ±, mt j) mt work2(±nt *a, mt ±, mt j) mt x = a[i+2]; mt ti = a[j] = x+1; mt t2 = a[tl]; return a[i+2] — 3; a[j] = t2+1; return t2 — 3; Si: The transformation form worki to work2 is valid, i.e., for any program state and input arguments, work2 will compute the same output and have the same effect on program state as worki S2: All the transformations applied to worki to get work2 will always improve the performance (i.e reduce CPU time) of work2 compared to worki (A) Si is false and S2 is false (B) Si is false and S2 is true (C) Si is true and S2 is false (D) Si is true and S2 is true 56. Consider the following code written in a pass-by-reference language like FORTRAN and these statements about the code. subroutine swap(ix,iy) it = ix Li: ix=iy L2: iy=it end ia = 3 ib = 8 call swap (ia, ib+5) print , ia, ib end Si: The compiler will generate code to allocate a temporary nameless cell, initialize it to i3, and pass the address of the cell swap S2: On execution the code will generate a runtime error on line Li S3: On execution the code will generate a runtime error on line L2 S4: The program will print i3 and 8 S5: The program will print i3 and -2 Exactly the following set of statement(s) is correct: (A) Si and S2 (B) Si and S4 (C) S3 (D) Si and S5 57. Consider this C code to swap two integers and these five statements: the code void swap (mt *px, mt *py) { *px = *px - *py; *py = *px + *py; *px = *py - *px; } Si: will generate a compilation error S2: may generate a segmentation fault at runtime depending on the arguments passed S3: correctly implements the swap procedure for all input pointers referring to integers stored in memory locations accessible to the process S4: implements the swap procedure correctly for some but not all valid input pointers S5: may add or subtract integers and pointers. (A) Si (B) S2 and S3 (C) S2 and S4 (D) S2 and S5 58. Consider the following grammar: S - FR R — *5k. F - Id In the predictive parser table, M, of the grammar the entries M[S,idl and M[R,\$1 respectively. (A) {S—FR} and {R—s} (B) {S—FR} and { } (C) {S—FR} and {R_*S} (D) {F — id} and {R — s} 59. Consider the following translation scheme. S - ER R *E{print(’*’);}Rs E — F+E{print(+);}F F — (S)id{print(id.value);} Here Id is a token that represents an integer and id.value represents the corresponding integer value. For an input 2*3+4,this translation scheme prints (A) 2*3+4 (B) 2*+34 (C) 2 3*4 (D) 2 3 4* 60. Consider the following C code segment. for (± — 0, i for (j=O; j if (±%2) x += (4*j + 5*±); y += (7 + 4*j); Which one of the following is false? (A) The code contains loop invariant computation (B) There is scope of common sub-expression elimination in this code (C) There is scope of strength reduction in this code (D) There is scope of dead code elimination in this code 61. The atomic fetch-and-set x, y instruction unconditionally sets the memory location x to 1 and fetches the old value of x n y without allowing any intervening access to the memory location x. consider the following implementation of P and V functions on a binary semaphore S. void P (binary_semaphore *s) unsigned y; unsigned * = &(s—>value);
do
fetch—and—set x, y;
while (y)
void V (binary_semaphore *s)
S—>value = 0;
Which one of the following is true?
(A) The implementation may not work if context switching is disabled in P
(B) Instead of using
fetch-and —set,
a pair of normal load/store can be used
(C) The implementation of V is wrong
(D) The code does not implement a binary semaphore
62. A CPU generates 32-bit virtual addresses. The page size is 4 KB. The processor has a
translation look-aside buffer (TLB) which can hold a total of 128 page table entries and is 4-
way set associative. The minimum size of the TLB tag is:
(A) 11 bits
(B) 13 bits
(C) 15 bits
(D) 20 bits
63. A computer system supports 32-bit virtual addresses as well as 32-bit physical addresses.
Since the virtual address space is of the same size as the physical address space, the
operating system designers decide to get rid of the virtual memory entirely. Which one of the
following is true?
(A) Efficient implementation of multi-user support is no longer possible
(B) The processor cache organization can be made more efficient now
(C) Hardware support for memory management is no longer needed
(D) CPU scheduling can be made more efficient now
64. Consider three processes (process id 0, 1, 2 respectively) with compute time bursts 2, 4
and 8 time units. All processes arrive at time zero. Consider the longest remaining time first
(LRTF) scheduling algorithm. In LRTF ties are broken by giving priority to the process with the
lowest process id. The average turn around time is:
(A) 13 units
(B) 14 units
(C) 15 units
(D) 16 units
65. Consider three processes, all arriving at time zero, with total execution time of
10, 20 and 30 units, respectively. Each process spends the first 20% of execution time doing
I/O, the next
70°h
of time doing computation, and the last 10°h of time doing I/O again. The
operating system uses a shortest remaining compute time first scheduling algorithm and
schedules a new process either when the running process gets blocked on I/O or when the
running process finishes its compute burst. Assume that all I/O operations can be overlapped
as much as possible. For what percentage of time does the CPU remain idle?
(A) 0%
(B)
1O.6°h
(C)
30.O°h
(D)
89.4°h
66. Consider the following snapshot of a system running n processes. Process
i
is holding
x,instances of a resource R,
1 n.
currently, all instances of R are occupied. Further, for all
I,
process
i
has placed a request for an additional y, instances while holding the x, instances it
already has. There are exactly two processes p and q such that =
Yq
= 0. Which one of the
following can serve as a necessary condition to guarantee that the system is not approaching
(A)
min(xp,xq)
< max Yk (B) X + Xq mink pq Yk (C) max(xp,xq)>1
(D)
min(xp,xq)>1
67. Consider the relation account (customer, balance) where customer is a primary key and
there are no null values. We would like to rank customers according to decreasing balance.
The customer with the largest balance gets rank 1. ties are
not broke but ranks are skipped: if exactly two customers have the largest balance they each
get rank 1 and rank 2 is not assigned.
select A.customer, count(B.customer)
Queryl: from account A, account B
where A.balance <=B.balance group by A.customer select A.customer, 1+count(B.customer) Query2: from account A, account B where A.balance < B.balance group by A.customer Consider these statements about Queryl and Query2. 1. Queryl will produce the same row set as Query2 for some but not all databases. 2. Both Queryl and Query2 are correct implementation of the specification 3. Queryl is a correct implementation of the specification but Query2 is not 4. Neither Queryl nor Query2 is a correct implementation of the specification 5. Assigning rank with a pure relational query takes less time than scanning in decreasing balance order assigning ranks using ODBC. Which two of the above statements are correct? (A) 2 and 5 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 5 68. Consider the relation enrolled (student, course) in which (student, course) is the primary key, and the relation paid (student, amount) where student is the primary key. Assume no null values and no foreign keys or integrity constraints. Given the following four queries: Queryl:select student from enrolled where student in (select student from paid) Query2:select student from paid where student in (select student from enrolled) Query3:select E.student from enrolled E, paid P where E.student = P.student Query4:select student from paid where exists (select * from enrolled where enrolled.student = paid.student) Which one of the following statements is correct? (A) All queries return identical row sets for any database (B) Query2 and Query4 return identical row sets for all databases but there exist databases for which Queryl and Query2 return different row sets. (C) There exist databases for which Query3 returns strictly fewer rows than Query2 (D) There exist databases for which Query4 will encounter an integrity violation at runtime. 69. Consider the relation enrolled (student, course) in which (student, course) is the primary key, and the relation paid (student, amount) where student is the primary key. Assume no null values and no foreign keys or integrity constraints. Assume that amounts 6000, 7000, 8000, 9000 and 10000 were each paid by 20% of the students. Consider these query plans (Plan 1 on left, Plan 2 on right) to “list all courses taken by students who have paid more than x” enrolled paid enrolled paid 1’ 1’ Probe index Sequential on student scan, select amount > x
A disk seek takes 4ms, disk data transfer bandwidth is 300 MB/s and checking a tuple to see if
amount is greater than x takes lOps. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Plan 1 and Plan 2 will not output identical row sets for all databases
(B) A course may be listed more than once in the output of Plan 1 for some data bases
(C) For x = 5000, Plan 1 executes faster than Plan 2 for all databases
(D) For x = 9000, Plan I executes slower than Plan 2 for all databases.
70. The following functional dependencies are given:
AB
-*
CD,AF
-*
D,DE
-*
F,C
-*
G,F
-*
E,G
-*
A.
Which one of the following options is false?
(A)
{CF} ={ACDEFG}
(B)
{BG}
=
{ABCDG}
(C)
{AF} ={ACDEFG}
(D)
{AB} ={ABCDFG}
Common Data Questions:
Common Data for Questions 71, 72, 73:
The 2 vertices of a graph G corresponds to all subsets of a set of size n, for
(a) 1 2
(b) 1 2
(c) S 2
(d) 1
2. This question consists of 25 (TWENTTY FIVE) sub-questions. Each sub-question carries TWO
marks. The answers to these sub-questions MUST be written only in the appropriate boxes
corresponding to the questions in the first page of the answer book.
2.1 A two-port device is defined by the following pair of equations:
i
= 2v +
v2
and ‘2 =
V1 + V2
Its impedance parameters
(z111z121z211z22)are
given by
(a) (2,1,1,1)
(b) (1,-1,-1,2)
(c) (1,1,1,2)
(d) (2,-1,-1,1)
2.2. The circuit shown in Fig.2.2 is equivalent to a load of
(a) (0.54+jO.313) ohms
(b) (4 — j2) ohms
(c) (4.54 — jl.69) ohms
(d) (4 + j2) ohms
2.3. The minimal product of sums function described by the K-map given in Fig. below
01 1 0 0
100 0
2.4. A diode whose terminal characteristics are related as ‘D =Is[-where Isis the
reverse saturation current and
VTi5
the thermal voltage (=25mV), is biased at =
2mA.
Its
dynamic resistance is:
(a) 25 ohms
(b) 12.5 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
2.5. In the circuit of Fig. below, the value of the base current I8will be
(a) 0.0 micro amperes
(b) 18.2 micro amperes
(c) 26.7 micro amperes
(d) 40.0 micro amperes
2.6. A dual slope analog-to-digital converters uses an N-bit counter. when the input signal
Va
is being integrated, the counter is allowed to count up to a value
(a) equal to
2N
—2
(b) equal to
2N
—1
(c) proportional to
Va
(d) inversely proportional to
Va
2.7. A 3-phase delta/star transformer is supplied at 6000 V on the delta-connected side. The
terminal voltage on the secondary side when supplying full load as 0.8 lagging power-factor is
415 V: The equivalent resistance and reactance drops for the transformer are la/c and Se/c
respectively. The turn’s ratio of the transformer is:
(a) 14
(b) 24
(c) 42
(d) 20
2.8. A 240 V dc series motor takes 40A when giving its rated output at 1500 rpm. Its
resistance is 0.3 ohms. The value of resistance which must be added to obtain rated torque at
1000 rpm is:
(a) 6 ohms
(b) 5.7 ohms
(c) 2.2 ohms
(d) 1.9 ohms
2.9. The power input to a 415V, 50 Hz, 6 pole, 3-phase induction motor running at
975 rpm is 40 kW. The stator losses are 1kW and friction and windage losses total 2 kW. The
efficiency of the motor is
(a)
92.5°h
(b)
90°h
(c)
91°h
(d) 88°h
2.10. A single-phase, 2000V alternator has armature resistance and reactance of 0.8 ohms
and 4.94 ohms respectively. The voltage regulation of the alternator at 100A load at 0.8
(a)
7°h
(b)
-8.9°h
(c) 14°h
(d)
0°h
2.11. A permanent magnet dc commutator motor has a no load speed of 6000 rpm when
connected to a 120V dc supply. The armature resistance is 2.5 ohms and other losses may be
neglected. The speed of the motor with supply voltage of 60V developing a torque 0.5 Nm, is:
(a) 3000 rpm
(b) 2673 rpm
(c) 2836 rpm
(d) 5346 rpm
2.12. A transmission line has equal voltages at the two ends, maintained constant by two
sources. A third source is to be provided to maintain constant voltage (equal to end voltages)
at either the midpoint of the line or at 755 of the distance from the sending end. Then the
maximum power transfer capabilities of the line in the original case and the other two cases
respectively will be in the following ratios.
(a) 1:1:1
(b) 1:2:1
(c) 1:2:4
(d)1:4:16
2.13. The plug setting of a negative sequence relay is 0.2A. The current transformer ratio is
5:1. The minimum value of line-to-line fault current for the operation of the relay is
(a) 1A
(b) 1
A
(c) 1.732A
(d) 0.2
A
2.14. The incremental cost chaçaceristlIf two generators delivering 200 MW are as follows
= 2.0 + 0.01P1,.- = 1.6 + 0.21’2
dP1 dP2
For economic operation, the generations P1 and
P2
should be
(a)
P1
=
P2
= 100MW
(b)
P1
=
8OMW,P2
= 120MW
(c)
P1
= 200MW,
P2
=
0MW
(d)
P1
=
120MW, P2
=
80MW
2.15. The corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz is 1kW/km per phase. The
corona loss at 60 Hz would be
(a) 1kW/km per phase
(b) 0.83kW/km per phase
(c) 1.2kW/km per phase
(d) 1.13kW/km per phase
2.16. The severity of line-to-ground and three phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded
synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1.0 p.u. and
z1 =z2
=jO.lp.u.,z0 =jO.05p.u.for
the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral
grounding is:
(a) 0.0166 p.u.
(b) 0.05 p.u.
(c) 0.1 p.u.
(d) 0.15 p.u.
2.17. A three phase voltage source inverter supplies a purely inductive three phase load. Upon
Fourier analysis, the output voltage waveform is found to have an hth order harmonic of
magnitude ahtimes that of the fundamental frequency component

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Tamilnadu 12th Standard Free Tutorial

Tamilnadu 12th Standard Electrostatics Physics
What is electrostatics?

Electrostatics is the branch of physics. It deals with static electric charges or charges at rest.

What is the analagous of electrostatis field?

The charges in a electrostatic field are analogous to the masses in a gravitational field.

Do charges posses potential energy? Why?

Yes. Charges do have forces acting on them. So, charges possess potential energy
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Human Physiology Tutorial:
What is physiology?

Physiology is the study of functioning of organs and organ systems

What is the purpose of a physiological activity?

All physiological activities are aimed at maintenance of homeostasis, living and reproduction
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Human Physiology Tutorial:
What is physiology?

Physiology is the study of functioning of organs and organ systems

What is the purpose of a physiological activity?

All physiological activities are aimed at maintenance of homeostasis, living and reproduction
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Electrostatics Physics Lesson 1 Free Tutorial:
What is electrostatics?

Electrostatics is the branch of physics. It deals with static electric charges or charges at rest.

What is the analagous of electrostatis field?

The charges in a electrostatic field are analogous to the masses in a gravitational field.

Do charges posses potential energy? Why?

Yes. Charges do have forces acting on them. So, charges possess potential energy
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Human Physiology Tutorial:
What is physiology?

Physiology is the study of functioning of organs and organ systems

What is the purpose of a physiological activity?

All physiological activities are aimed at maintenance of homeostasis, living and reproduction
Tamilnadu 12th Standard Electrostatics Physics Lesson 1 Free Tutorial:
What is electrostatics?

Electrostatics is the branch of physics. It deals with static electric charges or charges at rest.

What is the analagous of electrostatis field?

The charges in a electrostatic field are analogous to the masses in a gravitational field.

Do charges posses potential energy? Why?

Yes. Charges do have forces acting on them. So, charges possess potential energy